1
(verified d115)
D115 MASTER SET ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
FOR THE ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING SET OFF
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
What is the probable condition causing these symptoms?
Allergic rhinitis is marked by sinus congestion, clear nasal discharge, post nasal
drip that causes a sore throat, and cough that is worse when supine.
unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of a tonsillar
abscess. If the patient does not have trouble swallowing, is drooling, or has a
muffled voice, then it could be an enlarged tonsil rather than an abscess. Because
of the risk of airway obstruction, it is imperative that tonsillar abscess is ruled out
during the assessment.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene?
Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion.
This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri
du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
piercing cry.
, 2
(verified d115)
Which two statements are true regarding epinephrine?
Dopamine is the precursor of both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Epinephrine induces general vasodilation because of the predominance of β-
adrenergic receptors in the muscle vasculature.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?
Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chart Syndrome?
DNA deletion of chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation,
microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense?
Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense?
protect against damage and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial
cells including those of the skin and of the membranous sheets lining the
gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
Which structure is specifically involved in pain transmission?
The substantia gelatinosa, which is at the tip of the posterior horn of the spinal
cord, is directly involved in pain transmission.
Previousquestion
Which mechanism of heat loss involves electromagnetic waves?
Radiation is heat loss due to magnetic waves from surfaces of higher temperatures
to ambient air that is cooler.
Which theory of pain best describes phantom limb pain?
The neuromatrix theory proposes that the brain produces patterns of nerve
impulses drawn from various inputs, such as genetic, psychological, and cognitive
experiences, and suggests that pain may be felt in the absence of input from the
body. This theory would explain the phantom limb pain the woman is
experiencing.
, 3
(verified d115)
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?
Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.
The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing?
The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria?
Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen?
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing
an ABO incompatibility?
The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
, 4
(verified d115)
An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and
yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection?
Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas
HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after
exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer?
The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop?
Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.
UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or
cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?
Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
(verified d115)
D115 MASTER SET ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
FOR THE ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING SET OFF
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic
testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in
vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in
utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is
usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of
pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
What is the probable condition causing these symptoms?
Allergic rhinitis is marked by sinus congestion, clear nasal discharge, post nasal
drip that causes a sore throat, and cough that is worse when supine.
unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement during acute tonsillitis is suggestive of a tonsillar
abscess. If the patient does not have trouble swallowing, is drooling, or has a
muffled voice, then it could be an enlarged tonsil rather than an abscess. Because
of the risk of airway obstruction, it is imperative that tonsillar abscess is ruled out
during the assessment.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a
missing gene?
Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion.
This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri
du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a
piercing cry.
, 2
(verified d115)
Which two statements are true regarding epinephrine?
Dopamine is the precursor of both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Epinephrine induces general vasodilation because of the predominance of β-
adrenergic receptors in the muscle vasculature.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?
Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chart Syndrome?
DNA deletion of chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation,
microencephaly, and cat like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense?
Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
What happens in the physical layer of human defense?
protect against damage and infection are composed of tightly associated epithelial
cells including those of the skin and of the membranous sheets lining the
gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts.
Which structure is specifically involved in pain transmission?
The substantia gelatinosa, which is at the tip of the posterior horn of the spinal
cord, is directly involved in pain transmission.
Previousquestion
Which mechanism of heat loss involves electromagnetic waves?
Radiation is heat loss due to magnetic waves from surfaces of higher temperatures
to ambient air that is cooler.
Which theory of pain best describes phantom limb pain?
The neuromatrix theory proposes that the brain produces patterns of nerve
impulses drawn from various inputs, such as genetic, psychological, and cognitive
experiences, and suggests that pain may be felt in the absence of input from the
body. This theory would explain the phantom limb pain the woman is
experiencing.
, 3
(verified d115)
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?
Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation
and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.
The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing?
The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria?
Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen?
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing
an ABO incompatibility?
The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?
, 4
(verified d115)
An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and
yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection?
Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas
HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat
testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after
exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer?
The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years
most likely to develop?
Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.
UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB
rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or
cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?
Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
