1|Page
NCLEX-PN NEWEST 2025 FEATURING 500 COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS COVERING ALL
MAJOR NURSING CATEGORIES, INCLUDING PHARMACOLOGY,
HEALTH PROMOTION, PHYSIOLOGICAL INTEGRITY, AND
COORDINATED CARE.
The LPN is obtaining a health history from a client admitted with acute glomerulonephritis.
Which of the following history finding is significant for the diagnosis of acute
glomerulonephritis?
a) Personal history of sore throat 10 days ago
b) Family history of chronic glomerulonephritis
c) Personal history of renal calculus 2 years ago
d) Personal history of renal trauma several years ago - ANSWER-a) Personal history of sore
throat 10 days ago.
Explanation: Acute glomerulonephritis, an immune disorder that affects the kidneys, can be
causes by group A Streptococcus. It usually occurs about 10 days after strep throat or scarlet
fever and about 21 days after a group A Streptococcus skin infection.
A client reporting nausea, vomiting and severe right upper quadrant pain is admitted to the
medical/surgical unit. The client's temperature is 101.3 degrees F and an abdominal x-ray
reveals an enlarged gallbladder. The client is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following
actions should the LPN take first?
a) Assess the client's need for dietary teaching
b) Evaluate the client's fluid and electrolyte status
c) Examine the client's health history for allergies to antibiotics
,2|Page
d) Determine whether the client has signed consent for surgery - ANSWER-b) Evaluate the
client's fluid and electrolyte status
Explanation: Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia commonly occur repeated vomiting.
A client is being treated in the burn unit for second and third degree burns over 45% of his
body. The primary health care provider prescribes silver sulfadiazine cream application. Which
method is BEST for the LPN to apply this medication?
a) Sterile dressings soaked in saline
b) Sterile tongue depressor
c) Sterile gloved hand
d) Sterile cotton-tipped applicator - ANSWER-c) Sterile gloved hand
Explanation: A sterile gloved hand will cause the least trauma to tissues and will decrease the
chances of breaking blisters.
When caring for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of the following observations
indications to the LPN that the client's condition is improving?
a) The client eats all food on the meal tray
b) The client asks friends to bring special foods
c) The client weighs self daily
d) The client has gained weight - ANSWER-d) The client has gained weight.
Explanation: The client's weight is the most objective outcome measure in the evaluation of the
client's problem.
Which of the following symptoms observed by the LPN during the first 24 hours after a
percutaneous liver biopsy would indicate a complication from the procedure?
,3|Page
a) Anorexia, nausea and vomiting
b) Abdominal distension and discomfort
c) Pulse 112 beats/minute and blood pressure 86/60 mm Hg
d) Redness and pain at the biopsy site - ANSWER-c) Pulse 112 beats/min and BP 86/60 mm Hg.
Explanation: An increased pulse and decreased BP indicate shock. Shock is a result of
hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is a major complication.
The LPN is caring for a client receiving haloperidol 2 mg PO bid. The LPN assists the client to
choose which of the following menus?
a) 6 oz. roast beef, baked potato, salad with dressing, dill pickle, baked apple pie, and milk
b) 3 oz. baked chicken, green beans, steamed rice, 1 slice of bread, banana, and milk
c) 6 oz. burger on bun, french fries, apple, chocolate chip cookie, and milk to drink 30 minutes
after mealtime
d) 3 oz. baked fish, slice of bread, broccoli, ice cream, and pineapple juice to drink 60 min after
mealtime - ANSWER-b
Explanation: haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication. There are no diet restrictions. Because
there is no other information given you must consider it to be a regular balanced diet. Answer b
is the MOST regular balanced diet. It contains foods from each food group. Eliminate all those
answers that are not balanced, high in fat or salt. There is no indication that fluid intake should
not be delayed.
An adolescent is brought to the emergency department (ED) for a left femur fracture sustained
in a sledding accident. The primary HCP reduces the fracture and applies a cast. The client is
taught how to use crutches for ambulating without bearing weight on the left leg. The LPN
would expect the client to learn which of the following crutch-walking gaits?
a) two-point gait
b) three-point gait
, 4|Page
c) four-point gait
d) swing-through gait - ANSWER-b) three-point gait
Explanation: both crutches and one foot are on the ground. This would be appropriate for a
non-weight bearing client.
A client had a permanent pacemaker implanted one year ago. The client returns to the
outpatient clinic for suspected pacemaker battery failure. It is most important for the LPN to
assess which of the following?
a) abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
b) wheezing on exertion, cyanosis, and orthopnea
c) palpitations, shortness of breath, and dizziness
d) chest pain, headache, and diaphoresis - ANSWER-c) palpitations, shortness of breath and
dizziness
Explanation: Palpitations, SOB, dizziness, lightheadedness, syncope, irregular heart rate, and
tachycardia or bradycardia may occur with pacemaker battery failure.
A client with type 1 diabetes returns to the recovery room one hour after an uneventful delivery
of a 9 lb. 8 oz. (4,309 g) newborn. The nurse would expect which of these changes in the client's
blood glucose level?
a) From 220 to 180 mg/dL (12.21 to 10 mmol/L)
b) From 110 to 80 mg/dL (6.1 to 4.4 mmol/L)
c) From 90-120 mg/dL (5 to 6.7 mmol/L)
d) From 100-140 mg/dL (5.6 to 7.8 mmol/L) - ANSWER-b) From 110-80 mg/dL
The LPN knows that an assignment to which of the following clients would be appropriate?
NCLEX-PN NEWEST 2025 FEATURING 500 COMPREHENSIVE
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS COVERING ALL
MAJOR NURSING CATEGORIES, INCLUDING PHARMACOLOGY,
HEALTH PROMOTION, PHYSIOLOGICAL INTEGRITY, AND
COORDINATED CARE.
The LPN is obtaining a health history from a client admitted with acute glomerulonephritis.
Which of the following history finding is significant for the diagnosis of acute
glomerulonephritis?
a) Personal history of sore throat 10 days ago
b) Family history of chronic glomerulonephritis
c) Personal history of renal calculus 2 years ago
d) Personal history of renal trauma several years ago - ANSWER-a) Personal history of sore
throat 10 days ago.
Explanation: Acute glomerulonephritis, an immune disorder that affects the kidneys, can be
causes by group A Streptococcus. It usually occurs about 10 days after strep throat or scarlet
fever and about 21 days after a group A Streptococcus skin infection.
A client reporting nausea, vomiting and severe right upper quadrant pain is admitted to the
medical/surgical unit. The client's temperature is 101.3 degrees F and an abdominal x-ray
reveals an enlarged gallbladder. The client is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following
actions should the LPN take first?
a) Assess the client's need for dietary teaching
b) Evaluate the client's fluid and electrolyte status
c) Examine the client's health history for allergies to antibiotics
,2|Page
d) Determine whether the client has signed consent for surgery - ANSWER-b) Evaluate the
client's fluid and electrolyte status
Explanation: Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia commonly occur repeated vomiting.
A client is being treated in the burn unit for second and third degree burns over 45% of his
body. The primary health care provider prescribes silver sulfadiazine cream application. Which
method is BEST for the LPN to apply this medication?
a) Sterile dressings soaked in saline
b) Sterile tongue depressor
c) Sterile gloved hand
d) Sterile cotton-tipped applicator - ANSWER-c) Sterile gloved hand
Explanation: A sterile gloved hand will cause the least trauma to tissues and will decrease the
chances of breaking blisters.
When caring for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of the following observations
indications to the LPN that the client's condition is improving?
a) The client eats all food on the meal tray
b) The client asks friends to bring special foods
c) The client weighs self daily
d) The client has gained weight - ANSWER-d) The client has gained weight.
Explanation: The client's weight is the most objective outcome measure in the evaluation of the
client's problem.
Which of the following symptoms observed by the LPN during the first 24 hours after a
percutaneous liver biopsy would indicate a complication from the procedure?
,3|Page
a) Anorexia, nausea and vomiting
b) Abdominal distension and discomfort
c) Pulse 112 beats/minute and blood pressure 86/60 mm Hg
d) Redness and pain at the biopsy site - ANSWER-c) Pulse 112 beats/min and BP 86/60 mm Hg.
Explanation: An increased pulse and decreased BP indicate shock. Shock is a result of
hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is a major complication.
The LPN is caring for a client receiving haloperidol 2 mg PO bid. The LPN assists the client to
choose which of the following menus?
a) 6 oz. roast beef, baked potato, salad with dressing, dill pickle, baked apple pie, and milk
b) 3 oz. baked chicken, green beans, steamed rice, 1 slice of bread, banana, and milk
c) 6 oz. burger on bun, french fries, apple, chocolate chip cookie, and milk to drink 30 minutes
after mealtime
d) 3 oz. baked fish, slice of bread, broccoli, ice cream, and pineapple juice to drink 60 min after
mealtime - ANSWER-b
Explanation: haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication. There are no diet restrictions. Because
there is no other information given you must consider it to be a regular balanced diet. Answer b
is the MOST regular balanced diet. It contains foods from each food group. Eliminate all those
answers that are not balanced, high in fat or salt. There is no indication that fluid intake should
not be delayed.
An adolescent is brought to the emergency department (ED) for a left femur fracture sustained
in a sledding accident. The primary HCP reduces the fracture and applies a cast. The client is
taught how to use crutches for ambulating without bearing weight on the left leg. The LPN
would expect the client to learn which of the following crutch-walking gaits?
a) two-point gait
b) three-point gait
, 4|Page
c) four-point gait
d) swing-through gait - ANSWER-b) three-point gait
Explanation: both crutches and one foot are on the ground. This would be appropriate for a
non-weight bearing client.
A client had a permanent pacemaker implanted one year ago. The client returns to the
outpatient clinic for suspected pacemaker battery failure. It is most important for the LPN to
assess which of the following?
a) abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
b) wheezing on exertion, cyanosis, and orthopnea
c) palpitations, shortness of breath, and dizziness
d) chest pain, headache, and diaphoresis - ANSWER-c) palpitations, shortness of breath and
dizziness
Explanation: Palpitations, SOB, dizziness, lightheadedness, syncope, irregular heart rate, and
tachycardia or bradycardia may occur with pacemaker battery failure.
A client with type 1 diabetes returns to the recovery room one hour after an uneventful delivery
of a 9 lb. 8 oz. (4,309 g) newborn. The nurse would expect which of these changes in the client's
blood glucose level?
a) From 220 to 180 mg/dL (12.21 to 10 mmol/L)
b) From 110 to 80 mg/dL (6.1 to 4.4 mmol/L)
c) From 90-120 mg/dL (5 to 6.7 mmol/L)
d) From 100-140 mg/dL (5.6 to 7.8 mmol/L) - ANSWER-b) From 110-80 mg/dL
The LPN knows that an assignment to which of the following clients would be appropriate?
