NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
1. Adrenergic vasopressors are used to treat: hypotension during anesthesia.
Drugs in this category are
2. examples of: Adrenergic vasopressor drugs: dopamine, dobutamine,
ephedrine, phenylephrine, and norepinephrine.
3. Anticholinergic drugs: examples: Atropine and glycopyrrolate
4. Anticholinergic drugs: are used to treat: prevent surgical brachycardia
block vagal mediated reflexes
block parasmpathomimetric drugs
5. Beta blockers (2) examples: atenolol -- non selective
propanolol -- b1 selective
6. beta blockers are used to treat: tachycardia
hypertension
arrhythmias
7. Which is normally present in samples of plasma but not in serum from a
healthy domestic animal?: fibrinogen
serum = plasma - fibrinogen
8. serum is
anticoagul versus coagulated: clotted
9. plasma is
anticoagul versus coagulated: anti coagulated
10. what happens to the leukocytes of a dog on steroids: STRESS LEUKO-
GRAM
Mild to moderate mature neutrophilia
Monocytosis
Lymphopenia
Eosinopenia
11. stress leukogram: SMILED
Inc Segmented neutrophils
monocytes increased
Lymphocytes & eosinophils decreased
12. causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis
in sheep: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
, NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
13. 36) Hypoventilation of an animal during anesthesia can result in which of
the following blood gas derangements:
PaCO2
H
Ph: PaCO2 = decreased
H = increased
PH = decreased
14. What is a common side effect of xylazine administration in cats?: vomiting
15. 5 causes of IBD: 1. lymphoma or small cell
2. IBD
3. fungal
4. extreme parasitic loads
5. lymphagectasia
16. PT measures: extrinsic & common
17. PTT measures: intrinsic & common
18. haemophilia A affects which factor & which pathway: Factor VIII deficiency
ACT and PTT elevated
19. haemophilia b: Factor IX deficiency
ACT and PTT elevated
20. normal activating clotting time is: between 60-90 seconds
21. which disorders cause prolonged PT and PTT: liver disease
DIC
rodenticide
hemophilia
22. vitamin K dependent factors: II, VII, IX and X
23. which in clinic test can you use to assess Von willebrands disease: Buccal
mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) test to assess platelet function
24. what can you use to tx dog with Von willebrands disease: Desmopressin (to
stimulate vWF release)
or cryoprecipitate of FFP
25. Von willebrands disease is common in which breed: doberman
26. immune mediated thrombocytopenia - what is it?: An autoimmune condition
where the immune system destroys platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia and
spontaneous bleeding.
27. tx for immune mediated thrombocytopenia: Immunosuppressive therapy
e.g., corticosteroids, azothioprine, chlorambucil
, NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
28. multiple myeloma is cancer arrising from...: plasma cells
Systemic proliferation of malignant plasma cells
29. diagnosis of multiple myeloma requires: 2 or more of the following
- lytic lesions on radiograph
- bence jones proteinuria
- monoclonal gammopathy on serum electrophoresis
- plasma infiltration of the bone marrow
30. CS of multiple myeloma: lethargy
weight loss
bone pain or fractures
organomegaly
heart murmurs (hyperviscosity)
31. lab abnormalities of multiple myeloma: hyperglobulinemia
Hypercalcemia
pancytopenia
isothenuria
Elevated total protein with normal albumin
32. associated conditions with multiple myeloma: hyperviscosity syndrome
Hypercalcemia
Osteolysis
renal disease
hemorrhagic diathesis
increased susceptibility to bacterial infections
33. hyperviscosity syndrome in multiple myeloma can lead to: neurologic signs,
retinal lesions, and cardiac disease - murmurs
34. most common blood work findings that will clue you into multiple myelo-
ma: Hyperglobulinemia
35. chemotherapy drugs used for multiple myeloma: Melphan & Prednisone
36. supportive care for multiple myeloma:
37. which species of ringworm appears on woods lamp: 50% of cases of Mi-
crosporum canis
38. tx for ringworm: lyme sulfur dip and itraconazole
39. MCT grading systems (2): number system -- Patnaik
low grade / high -- Kiupel
, NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
40. ddx for osteolytic lesions found in the bone: 2 major ones:
multiple myeloma
osteosarcoma
41. hyperkalemia leads to what effects on the heart:: 1. brachycardia
2. EKG: tall/tented T wave, no p wave, widened QRS wave
42. treatment for hyperkalemia: 1. IV fluids
2. dextrose
3. insulin
4. sodium bicarb
5. calcium glucontate
43. TREATMENT OF AZOTEMIA/hyperphosphatemia: Re-establishing GFR by
decompressing the bladder/relieving obstruction
IV fluid diuresis
44. Sympathetic nerve bladder control: Hypogastric
45. Parasympathetic nerve bladder control: Pelvic
46. Somatic nerve bladder control: Pudental
47. Pericardial effusion - what is pulsus paradoxus: Drop in systolic BP during
inhalation
48. Pericardial effusion - dog differentials: Cancer- hemangiosarcoma
Bacterial
RS HF
Idiopathic
Coagulopathy (rodenticide)
Atrial rupture
49. Pericardial effusion - cat differentials: FIP
Cancer - lymphosarcoma
CHF
50. Pericardial effusion - equine differentials: Idiopathic (most common)
Septicemia
Extension from bacterial lung infection
Viral
51. Pericardial effusion - cattle differentials: Traumatic reticuloperitinitis
52. Pericardial effusion - results in what type of shock: Cardiac tamponade
53. Cardiac tamponade: results in (4): Impairment of:
Ventricular filling
Venous return
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
1. Adrenergic vasopressors are used to treat: hypotension during anesthesia.
Drugs in this category are
2. examples of: Adrenergic vasopressor drugs: dopamine, dobutamine,
ephedrine, phenylephrine, and norepinephrine.
3. Anticholinergic drugs: examples: Atropine and glycopyrrolate
4. Anticholinergic drugs: are used to treat: prevent surgical brachycardia
block vagal mediated reflexes
block parasmpathomimetric drugs
5. Beta blockers (2) examples: atenolol -- non selective
propanolol -- b1 selective
6. beta blockers are used to treat: tachycardia
hypertension
arrhythmias
7. Which is normally present in samples of plasma but not in serum from a
healthy domestic animal?: fibrinogen
serum = plasma - fibrinogen
8. serum is
anticoagul versus coagulated: clotted
9. plasma is
anticoagul versus coagulated: anti coagulated
10. what happens to the leukocytes of a dog on steroids: STRESS LEUKO-
GRAM
Mild to moderate mature neutrophilia
Monocytosis
Lymphopenia
Eosinopenia
11. stress leukogram: SMILED
Inc Segmented neutrophils
monocytes increased
Lymphocytes & eosinophils decreased
12. causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis
in sheep: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
, NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
13. 36) Hypoventilation of an animal during anesthesia can result in which of
the following blood gas derangements:
PaCO2
H
Ph: PaCO2 = decreased
H = increased
PH = decreased
14. What is a common side effect of xylazine administration in cats?: vomiting
15. 5 causes of IBD: 1. lymphoma or small cell
2. IBD
3. fungal
4. extreme parasitic loads
5. lymphagectasia
16. PT measures: extrinsic & common
17. PTT measures: intrinsic & common
18. haemophilia A affects which factor & which pathway: Factor VIII deficiency
ACT and PTT elevated
19. haemophilia b: Factor IX deficiency
ACT and PTT elevated
20. normal activating clotting time is: between 60-90 seconds
21. which disorders cause prolonged PT and PTT: liver disease
DIC
rodenticide
hemophilia
22. vitamin K dependent factors: II, VII, IX and X
23. which in clinic test can you use to assess Von willebrands disease: Buccal
mucosal bleeding time (BMBT) test to assess platelet function
24. what can you use to tx dog with Von willebrands disease: Desmopressin (to
stimulate vWF release)
or cryoprecipitate of FFP
25. Von willebrands disease is common in which breed: doberman
26. immune mediated thrombocytopenia - what is it?: An autoimmune condition
where the immune system destroys platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia and
spontaneous bleeding.
27. tx for immune mediated thrombocytopenia: Immunosuppressive therapy
e.g., corticosteroids, azothioprine, chlorambucil
, NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
28. multiple myeloma is cancer arrising from...: plasma cells
Systemic proliferation of malignant plasma cells
29. diagnosis of multiple myeloma requires: 2 or more of the following
- lytic lesions on radiograph
- bence jones proteinuria
- monoclonal gammopathy on serum electrophoresis
- plasma infiltration of the bone marrow
30. CS of multiple myeloma: lethargy
weight loss
bone pain or fractures
organomegaly
heart murmurs (hyperviscosity)
31. lab abnormalities of multiple myeloma: hyperglobulinemia
Hypercalcemia
pancytopenia
isothenuria
Elevated total protein with normal albumin
32. associated conditions with multiple myeloma: hyperviscosity syndrome
Hypercalcemia
Osteolysis
renal disease
hemorrhagic diathesis
increased susceptibility to bacterial infections
33. hyperviscosity syndrome in multiple myeloma can lead to: neurologic signs,
retinal lesions, and cardiac disease - murmurs
34. most common blood work findings that will clue you into multiple myelo-
ma: Hyperglobulinemia
35. chemotherapy drugs used for multiple myeloma: Melphan & Prednisone
36. supportive care for multiple myeloma:
37. which species of ringworm appears on woods lamp: 50% of cases of Mi-
crosporum canis
38. tx for ringworm: lyme sulfur dip and itraconazole
39. MCT grading systems (2): number system -- Patnaik
low grade / high -- Kiupel
, NAVLE DOG questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_gdpx0e
40. ddx for osteolytic lesions found in the bone: 2 major ones:
multiple myeloma
osteosarcoma
41. hyperkalemia leads to what effects on the heart:: 1. brachycardia
2. EKG: tall/tented T wave, no p wave, widened QRS wave
42. treatment for hyperkalemia: 1. IV fluids
2. dextrose
3. insulin
4. sodium bicarb
5. calcium glucontate
43. TREATMENT OF AZOTEMIA/hyperphosphatemia: Re-establishing GFR by
decompressing the bladder/relieving obstruction
IV fluid diuresis
44. Sympathetic nerve bladder control: Hypogastric
45. Parasympathetic nerve bladder control: Pelvic
46. Somatic nerve bladder control: Pudental
47. Pericardial effusion - what is pulsus paradoxus: Drop in systolic BP during
inhalation
48. Pericardial effusion - dog differentials: Cancer- hemangiosarcoma
Bacterial
RS HF
Idiopathic
Coagulopathy (rodenticide)
Atrial rupture
49. Pericardial effusion - cat differentials: FIP
Cancer - lymphosarcoma
CHF
50. Pericardial effusion - equine differentials: Idiopathic (most common)
Septicemia
Extension from bacterial lung infection
Viral
51. Pericardial effusion - cattle differentials: Traumatic reticuloperitinitis
52. Pericardial effusion - results in what type of shock: Cardiac tamponade
53. Cardiac tamponade: results in (4): Impairment of:
Ventricular filling
Venous return
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
