NURS_6501N Advanced Pathophysiology. Midterm & Final Exam. (Questions and A+ Graded Answers.)

Chamberlain University NUR 546 Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner NUR 546 Final Course Title and Number: NUR 546 Psychopharmacology for the Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner Exam Title: NUR 546 Final Exam Date: Final Exam Instructor: [Insert Instructor’s Name] Student Name: [Insert Student’s Name] Student ID: [Insert Student ID] Final Examination 180 minutes Instructions: 1. Read each question carefully. 2. Answer all questions. 3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses. 4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam. Good Luck! Walden University NURS-6501N Advanced Pathophysiology NURS-6501N Midterm and Final Exam Course Title and Number: NURS-6501N Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Title: NURS-6501N Midterm Exam Exam Date: Midterm and Final Fall 2024 Instructor: [Insert Instructor’s Name] Student Name: [Insert Student’s Name] Student ID: [Insert Student ID] Midterm and Final Examination 2 Hours Instructions: 1. Read each question carefully. 2. Answer all questions. 3. Use the provided answer sheet to mark your responses. 4. Ensure all answers are final before submitting the exam.What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential? - Answer Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. How are cells specialized? - Answer through the process of differentiation or maturation What are the eight specialized cellular functions? - Answer movement, conductivity, metabolic absorption, secretion, excretion, respiration, reproduction, and communication What are the three general components of an eukaryotic cell? - Answer the plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, and the intracellular organelles. What causes the release of lysosomal enzemes? - Answer Cellular injury causing cellular self-digestion What is the location and function of the nucleus? - Answer the largest membrane-bound organelle and is found usually in the cell's center. The chief functions of the nucleus are cell division and control of genetic information. NURS-6501N Advanced Pathophysiology Fall 2024 – 2025 NURS-6501N Midterm Exam Review Questions with Verified Solutions | 100% Pass | Graded A+ | Guaranteed SuccessA runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance? - Answer Anaerobic glycolysis What is Cytoplasm? - Answer an aqueous solution (cytosol) that fills the space between the nucleus and the plasma membrane. What is the endoplasmic reticulum and what does it specialize in? - Answer a network of tubular channels (cisternae) that extend throughout the outer nuclear membrane. It specializes in the synthesis and transport of protein and lipid components of most of the organelles What is the Golgi complex and what does it do? - Answer a network of smooth membranes and vesicles located near the nucleus. The Golgi complex is responsible for processing and packaging proteins into secretory vesicles What are lysosomes and what do they do? - Answer saclike structures that originate from the Golgi complex and contain digestive enzymes. These enzymes are responsible for digesting most cellular substances to their basic form, such as amino acids, fatty acids, and carbohydrates What are peroxisomes? - Answer involved in the production and breakdown of hydrogen peroxide Importance of proteins in disease - Answer The major workhorses of the cell, if misfolded they can cause diseasesWhat are mitochondria responsible for? - Answer . Mitochondria contain the metabolic machinery necessary for cellular energy metabolism (Makes ATP). What is the cytoskeleton? - Answer the "bone and muscle" of the cell. The internal skeleton is composed of a network of protein filaments, including microtubules and actin filaments (microfilaments). What is the plasma membrane? - Answer encloses the cell and, by controlling the movement of substances across it, exerts a powerful influence on metabolic pathways What is signal transduction? - Answer The transfer of molecular signals from the exterior to the interior of a cell. If not done apoptosis occurs What is protein regulation and what is it composed of? - Answer protein homeostasis and is defined by the proteostasis network. This network is composed of ribosomes (makers), chaperones (helpers), and protein breakdown or proteolytic systems. Malfunction of these systems is associated with disease. What do protein receptors do? - Answer on the plasma membrane, enable the cell to interact with other cells and with extracellular substances What means accomplish cell-to-cell adhesions? - Answer (1) the extracellular membrane, (2) cell adhesion molecules in the cell's plasma membrane, and (3) specialized cell junctions. What makes up the extracellular matrix and what does it do? - Answer (1) fibrous structural proteins (collagen and elastin), (2) adhesive glycoproteins, and(3) proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid. The matrix helps regulate cell growth, movement, and differentiation. How do cells communicate? - Answer (1) they form protein channels (gap junctions); (2) they display receptors that affect intracellular processes or other cells in direct physical contact; and (3) they use receptor proteins inside the target cell. How is intercellular signaling done? - Answer contact-dependent, paracrine, hormonal, neurohormonal, and neurotransmitter. What is ATP? - Answer Adenosine Triphosphate - ENERGY - is required for active transport. What is anabolism? - Answer energy-using process of metabolism What is catabolism? - Answer the energy-releasing process of metabolism What is passive transport? - Answer The movement of materials across the cell membrane without using cellular energy, water and small electrically uncharged molecules, done through osmosis What is oxidative phosphorylation? - Answer occurs in the mitochondria and is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. What is endocytosis and exocytosis? - Answer Endo= into the cell (engulf). Exo= out of the cell (excrete).What is active transport? - Answer requires the cell to expend energy (by means of ATP) to move larger molecules and molecular complexes What is pinocytosis? - Answer the ingestion of liquid into a cell by the budding of small vesicles from the cell membrane. (drinking) How is endocytosis done? - Answer when the substance to be transported is engulfed by a segment of the plasma membrane, forming a vesicle that moves into the cell. What is phagocytosis? - Answer the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes and amoeboid protozoans. (eating) What is receptor-mediated endocytosis? - Answer receptor-mediated endocytosis to selectively take up specific molecules or complexes of molecules that cannot diffuse or move through transport proteins What is diffusion? - Answer The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. What happens after endocytosis occurs? - Answer lysosomal enzymes process and digest material What is osmosis? - Answer diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane What is filtration? - Answer the measurement of water and solutes through a membrane because of a greater pushing pressure.What is hydrostatic pressure? - Answer the mechanical force of water pushing against cellular membranes. What is oncotic pressure? - Answer Osmotic pressure exerted by colloids in solution. What is osmotic pressure? - Answer The amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water What is the resting membrane potential? - Answer Difference in electrical charge across the membrane at rest What is action potential? - Answer the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell. How does DNA replicate? - Answer DNA molecule unwinds and each strand is a template for complementary base pairing; each daughter helix contains an intact strand from the parent helix and a newly synthesized strand therefore DNA replication is semiconservative What are the four phases of the cell cycle? - Answer (1) the S phase, during which DNA synthesis takes place in the cell nucleus; (2) the G2 phase, the period between the completion of DNA synthesis and the next phase (M); (3) the M phase, which involves both nuclear (mitotic) and cytoplasmic (cytokinetic) division; and (4) the G1 phase (growth phase), after which the cycle begins again.What are the four stages of the M phase (Mitosis)? - Answer prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. What is DNA composed of? - Answer deoxyribose, a phosphate molecule, and four types of nitrogenous bases. The physical structure of DNA is a double helix What does DNA polymerase do? - Answer Joins individual nucleotides to make complementary strands and proofreads the sequence of bases and corrects errors What is transcription? - Answer The process of making RNA from DNA What is translation? - Answer the decoding of an mRNA message into a protein What are diploid somatic cells? - Answer Body Cells What are haploid gametes? - Answer sperm and egg cells What is a karyotype? - Answer A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape How common are chromosome abnormalities? - Answer 1 in 150 live births, leading cause of mental retardation and miscarriage What is polyploidy? - Answer condition in which an organism has extra sets of chromosomes What is aneuploidy? - Answer Abnormal number of chromosomes.What is trisomy? - Answer 3 copies of a chromosome What is monosomy? - Answer missing one chromosome What are alleles? - Answer different versions of the same gene Compare monosomies and trisomes - Answer monosomies cause more severe physical defects than do trisomies, illustrating the principle that the loss of chromosome material has more severe consequences than the duplication of chromosome material. What are the four abnormalities of chromosome structures? - Answer deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations. What is a locus? - Answer the precise location of a gene on a chromosome What is genomic imprinting? - Answer The silencing of a gene that is 'stamped' with an imprint during gamete production. What is epigenetics? - Answer the study of how the environment affects which genes are expressed Recurrence risk for autosomal dominant diseases - Answer 50% Recurrence risk for autosomal recessive diseases - Answer 25%What is consanguinity? - Answer marriage between blood relatives What gene determines sex? - Answer SRY gene, typically on the Y chromosome. If a Y chromosome lacks SRY gene an XY female can be produced, also if an X chromosome has an SRY gene an XX male may be produced What is a sex-influenced trait? - Answer sex influenced inheritance are genetic trends based on sex -i.e. gene that expresses for baldness in men does not for women Why would X-linked recessive genes be seen more in males? - Answer because males need only one copy of the gene to express the disease Why are skipped generation diseases seen in X-linked diseases? - Answer Biologic fathers cannot pass Xlinked genes to their sons and the gene can be transmitted through carrier females What is a sex limited characteristic? - Answer one that occurs only in one sex What are polygenic traits? - Answer traits that are controlled by two or more genes Prediction of disease - Answer A marker locus, when closely linked to a disease-gene locus, can be used to predict whether an individual will develop a genetic disease. What are multifactorial traits? - Answer traits that depend on multiple genes combined with environmental influencesWhat is cellular adaptation? - Answer a reversible, structural, or functional response both to normal or physiologic conditions and to adverse or pathologic conditions What is the threshold of liability? - Answer In many multifactorial traits, once the threshold of liability has been crossed, the disease may be expressed. What is atrophy? - Answer decrease in cell size What are the most commonly seen adaptive cell changes? - Answer atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and metaplasia. What is hypertrophy? - Answer increase in cell size What mechanisms cause atrophy? - Answer include decreased protein synthesis, increased protein catabolism, or both What is hyperplasia? - Answer increase in number of cells caused by increased rate of cellular division What happens with hypertrophy? - Answer The amounts of protein in the plasma membrane, ER, microfilaments, and mitochondria increase What is metaplasia? - Answer a change in stress on an organ that leads to a change in cell type Most commonly involves a change of one type of surface epithelium to another *metaplastic cells are better able to handle the new stress metaplasia occurs via reprogramming of stem cells which then produce the new cell typeWhat are free radicals? - Answer unstable oxygencontaining molecules that can damage the cells of the body and possibly contribute to the increased risk of chronic diseases What is dysplasia? - Answer an abnormal change in the size, shape, and organization of mature tissue cells. It is considered atypical rather than a true adaptational change. What can cause cell injury? - Answer lack of oxygen (hypoxia), free radicals, caustic or toxic chemicals, infectious agents, inflammatory and immune responses, genetic factors, insufficient nutrients, or physical and mechanical trauma from many causes What are the four biochemical themes associated with cell injury? - Answer (1) ATP depletion, resulting in mitochondrial damage; (2) accumulation of oxygen and oxygen-derived free radicals, causing membrane damage; (3) protein folding defects; and (4) increased intracellular calcium concentration and loss of calcium steady state. What is the sequence of events in cell death? - Answer decreased ATP production, failure of active transport mechanisms (the sodium-potassium pump), cellular swelling, detachment of ribosomes from the ER, cessation of protein synthesis, mitochondrial swelling as a result of calcium accumulation, vacuolation, leakage of digestive enzymes from lysosomes, autodigestion of intracellular structures, lysis of the plasma membrane, and death.What happens first in a hypoxic injury? - Answer the cessation of blood flow into vessels that supply the cell with oxygen and nutrients (ischemia) What is oncosis? - Answer accumulation of water causing cellular death What can cause a reperfusion injury? - Answer restoration of oxygen by oxidative stress, increased intracellular calcium concentration, inflammation, and complement activation. How can deprivation of essential nutrients (proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and vitamins) lead to cell injury? - Answer by altering cellular structure and function, particularly of transport mechanisms, chromosomes, the nucleus, and DNA What are the two categories of intracellular accumulations? - Answer (1) normal cellular substances, such as water, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrate excesses; and (2) abnormal substances, either endogenous (e.g., from abnormal metabolism) or exogenous (e.g., a virus). What mechanisms cause accumulations? - Answer (1) An endogenous substance is produced in excess or at an increased rate; (2) an abnormal substance, often the result of a mutated gene, accumulates; (3) an endogenous substance is not effectively catabolized; and (4) a harmful exogenous substance accumulates because of inhalation, ingestion, or infection. What causes cellular swelling? - Answer the failure of transport mechanisms and is a sign of many types of cellular injuryWhat is dystrophic calcification? - Answer hallmark of CELLULAR INJURY and occurs in all types of cell NECROSIS always in the setting of NORMAL CALCIUM LEVELS, and results in PSAMMOMA BODIES What does a disturbance in urate metabolism cause? - Answer hyperuricemia and deposition of sodium urate crystals in tissue—leading to a painful disorder called gout What are the systemic manifestations of cellular injury? - Answer fever, leukocytosis, increased heart rate, pain, and serum elevations of enzymes in the plasma What is necrosis? - Answer rapid loss of the plasma membrane structure, organelle swelling, mitochondrial dysfunction, and the lack of features of apoptosis What is apoptosis? - Answer regulated or programmed cell death and is characterized by "dropping off" of cellular fragments, called apoptotic bodies What is necroptosis? - Answer programmed necrosis What are the four types of necrosis? - Answer coagulative, liquefactive, caseous, and fatty What is endoplasmic reticulum stress? - Answer Excessive accumulation of misfolded proteins in the ER What is dysregulated apoptosis? - Answer excessive or insufficient apoptosisWhat are some important factors in aging? - Answer increased damage to the cell, reduced capacity to divide, reduced ability to repair damaged DNA, and increased likelihood of defective protein balance or homeostasis. What is sarcopenia? - Answer loss of muscle mass and strength What is cachexia? - Answer weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness What is somatic death? - Answer death of the entire organism What is osteogenesis imperfecta? - Answer caused by pathogenic variants (formerly termed "mutations") in collagen genes Cause of genetic disease? - Answer a change in the sequence or cellular content of DNA that ultimately deranges gene expression, deletion of a group of genes or an abnormal number of chromosomes Most genetic disorders affect all cells why? - Answer it is inherited from a mutant egg or sperm When a genetic disorder does not affect all cells what is it? - Answer a mosaic because it occurred during gestation What us an alleles? - Answer slight differences seen in a genes DNA sequence across a population What is a variant and what modifiers are used? - Answer term to define a change in DNA sequence from the population norm and is used with the followingmodifiers: "pathogenic," "likely pathogenic," "uncertain significance," "likely benign," and "benign." What is a single nucleotide variant? - Answer a single base pair change has occurred What is a phenotype? - Answer any characteristic that can be measured, with the type of measurement depending on the characteristic What are molecular biologic phenotypes? - Answer can be detected only with a laboratory test What is penetrance? - Answer the percentage of individuals having a particular genotype that express the expected phenotype What is fitness? - Answer how well an organism can survive and reproduce in its environment What is variable expressivity? - Answer The same altered gene giving rise to a spectrum of different phenotypes What is a neutral effect on gene activity? - Answer no effect What is an amorphic variant effect on gene activity? - Answer Complete loss of function What is a hypomorphic variant effect on gene activity? - Answer Partial loss of function What is a hypermorphic variant effect on gene activity? - Answer gain of functionWhat is a neomorphic variant effect on gene activity? - Answer acquires a new property What is hemizygosity? - Answer a recessive inheritance that emerges in a male due to only having one X chromosome What is type 1 osteogenesis imperfecta? - Answer mild-Short stature, postnatal fractures, little or no deformity, blue scleras, premature hearing loss What is type II osteogenesis imperfecta? - Answer perinatal lethal-severe prenatal fractures, abnormal bone formation, severe deformities, blue sceleras, connective tissue fragility What is type III osteogensis imperfecta? - Answer progressive deforming- prenatal fractures, deformities present at birth, very short stature, usually nonambulatory, blue scleras, hearing loss What is type IV osteogenesis imperfecta? - Answer Deforming with normal scleras- postnatal fractures, mild to moderate deformities, premature hearing loss, normal or grey scleras, dental abnormalities What does osteogenesis imperfecta impact? - Answer type I collagen found in the dermis, connective tissue in organs, vascular and gastrointestinal adventitia, and is the only collagen in bone What is phyenylketonuria? - Answer elevated levels of urinary phenylpyruvate and phenylacetate, which occur when circulating phenylalanine levels, normally between 0.06 and 0.1 mmol/L, rise above 1.2 mmol/LWhat is the most common cause of hyperphenylalaninemia? - Answer deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine What can result from untreated hyperphenylalaninemia? - Answer Post-natal growth restriction, moderate-to-severe intellectual disability, recurrent seizures, hypopigmentation, and eczematous skin rashes What can happen if hyperphenylalaninemia treatment is stopped too early in childhood or adolescence? - Answer neurocognitive deficits and psychiatric problems that can develop, including deficits in executive functioning and anxiety, depression, and phobias. How does Fragile X present? - Answer small joint hyperextensibility, mild hypotonia, and a family history of intellectual disability in maternally related males A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following? - Answer XXY A nurse is reviewing the pedigree chart. When checking for a proband, what is the nurse looking for? - Answer The person who is first diagnosed with a genetic disease An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? - Answer ExpressivityIn teaching a patient with cirrhosis, which information should the nurse include regarding cholesterol? - Answer Cholesterol decreases the membrane fluidity of the erythrocyte, which reduces its ability to carry oxygen. When a patient asks what causes cystic fibrosis, how should the nurse respond? Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene - Answer Autosomal recessive How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? - Answer By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase) The nurse would be correct in identifying the predominant extracellular cation as: - Answer Sodium The early dilation (swelling) of the cell's endoplasmic reticulum results in: - Answer Reduced protein synthesis What principle should the nurse remember when trying to distinguish aging from diseases? - Answer It is difficult to tell the difference because both processes are believed to result from cell injury. What is the diagnosis of a 13-year-old female who has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present? Her features include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair. - Answer Turner syndrome A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained? - Answer NucleolusThe nurse is teaching staff about the most common cause of Down syndrome. What is the nurse describing? - Answer Maternal nondisjunction A 50-year-old male was recently diagnosed with Huntington disease. Transmission of this disease is associated with: - Answer Delayed age of onset A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurse's best response? - Answer Pregnancy in women over age 35 What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? - Answer Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis? - Answer Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4 dihydroxyphenylalanine) Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of: - Answer Decreased ATP production A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by: - Answer Plasma proteins The ion transporter that moves Na + and Ca 2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport? - Answer Symport A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? - Answer Tetraploidy Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in and out of cells? - Answer Because the resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium Hypothyroidism - Answer A disorder caused by a thyroid gland that is slower and less productive than normal, does not produce enough T3 and T4 T3, T4, TSH - Answer Diagnosing hypo/hyperthyroidism T3/T4 = thyroid. TSH = Pituitary. T3/T4 abnormality = problem with THYROID. T3/T4 normal + TSH abnormal = Secondary thyroid problem If too much T3/T4, then TSH will be down. Vice Versa. calcium - Answer parathyroid glands responsible for regulating ___ levels. metabolism, temperature - Answer Thyroid produces hormones T3, T4, and plays big role in __, ___ regulation and growth and development iodine - Answer Brain cannot make T3 and T4 without ___ slows - Answer hypothyroidism everything ___. stimulates sympathetic nervous system, drowsy, lethargic constipated, food move slows, weight gain body temp increasesHyperthyroidism - Answer excessive activity of the thyroid gland: increased levels of T3, T4 and TSH loss - Answer Hyperthyroidism: burning calories at an excessive rate weight ___ stimulates sympathetic nervous system: alert, quick reflexes, increased HR & BP (fight or flight response_ Heat intolerance: increased body temp Active GI: diarrhea anterior pituitary gland - Answer the anterior part of the pituitary gland; an endocrine gland whose secretions are controlled by the hypothalamic hormones produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Cushing's disease - Answer (Remember: *UP, UP, UP, DOWN, UP*) HYPERnatremia, HYPERtension, INCREASED blood volume, HYPOkalemia, HYPERglycemia adrenal cortex - Answer outer section of each adrenal gland; secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones Aldosterone - Answer Hormone that stimulates the kidney to retain sodium ions and water to regulate BP via angiotensin-aldosterone system, retention of sodium and secretes potassiumcortisol - Answer stress hormone released by the adrenal cortex helps the body deal with stress such as illness or injury increases blood glucose breaks down fats, proteins, carbs electrolyte regulations Negative feedback - Answer Hypothalamus releases CRH corticotropin releasing hormone -- pituitary gland releases ATCH adrenocorticotropic hormone -- adrenal cortex to release cortisol increased - Answer Cushings disease has ___ secretion of cortisol decreased - Answer Addison's disease has __ secretion of cortisol and aldosterone Need to ADD some steroids syndrome - Answer Cushing ___ is when an outside cause results in too much production of cortisol, like treatment with steroids disease - Answer Cushings ___ is when an internal issue is causing over production of cortisol autoimmune - Answer Addison's disease is typically an ____ disorder where the body is attacking the adrenal cortex on top of the adrenal gland Cushing's - Answer ___ symptoms: skin fragile truncal obesity, smallextremities with striae on them excessive hair "moon face" buffalo hump females -- no menstruation males-- ED hyperglycemia d/t high cortisol Addison's - Answer ___ symptoms: brownish hyperpigmentation of skin diarrhea, nausea hyponatremia d/t low aldosterone levels -- hyperkalemia hypoglycemia d/t low cortisol low bp, risk for vascular collapse going into shock Anti-diuretic hormone - Answer aka Vasopressin ADH is a hormone made by the hypothalamus in the brain and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It tells your kidneys how much water to conserve. ADH constantly regulates and balances the amount of water in your blood. increase - Answer SIADH will have ___ in antidiuretic hormone decrease - Answer Diabetes insipidus will have a __ in ADHposterior pituitary gland - Answer stores and secretes ADH after hypothalamus produces ADH Pheochromocytoma - Answer a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that causes the gland to secrete catecholamines (epinephrine, norpinephrine, dopamine, and dopa) leading to high BP, headache, sweating and symptoms of a panic attack. diabetic ketoacidosis - Answer acidity of the blood caused by the presence of ketone bodies produced when the body is unable to burn sugar; thus, it must burn fat (triglycerides and amino acids instead of glucose) for energy hyperglycemia hyperketonemia metabolic acidosis occurs mostly in type 1 diabetes mellitus cerebral, coma - Answer DKA causes nausea, vomiting, and abd pain and can progress to __ edema, __ and death deficiency - Answer DKA: hyperglycemia d/t insulin ___ causes an osmotic diuresis leading to marked urinary losses of water and electrolytes urinary excretion of ketones leads to additional loss of sodium and potassiuminflammation - Answer Pericarditis is ___ of the pericardium, often with fluid accumulation in the pericardial space (pericardial effusion) cardiac tamponade - Answer acute compression of the heart caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity-- impairs cardiac filling leading to low cardiac output. infective endocarditis - Answer inflammation of endothelium that lines heart and cardiac valves. most commonly damages mitral valve, then aortic and tricuspid valves. commonly caused by bacteria that are normally present in the body. can also occur after an invasive medical or dental procedure. symptoms: valvular dysfunction, may affect organ systems, chest pain, CHF, clubbing, meningitis, low back pain, arthralgia, arthritis myocarditis - Answer inflammation of the myocardium with necrosis of cardiac myocytes biopsy shows inflammatory infiltrate of the myocardium with lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, and granulomas direct cardiomyocyte injury cased by an infectious or other cardiotoxic agent OR myocardial injury caused by an autoimmune reaction to an infectious or cardiotoxic agent aortic regurgitation - Answer (aortic insufficiency) incompetent aortic valve that allows backward flow of blood from the aorta into left ventricle during diastole aortic stenosis - Answer calcification of aortic valve cusps that restricts forward flow of blood during systolenarrowing of the aortic valve, obstructing blood flow from the left ventricle to the ascending aorta during systole mitral regurgitation - Answer mitral insufficiency; incompetent mitral valve allows regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle back into left atrium during systole mitral stenosis - Answer narrowing of the mitral valve orifice that impedes blood flow from the left atrium to the left vetricle mitral valve prolapse - Answer Improper closure of the valve between the heart's upper and lower left chambers. billowing of mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole pulmonic regurgitation - Answer pulmonic insufficiency; backflow of blood through incompetent pulmonic valve into the right ventricle causes blood from from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle during diastole pulmonic stenosis - Answer narrowing of the opening and valvular area between the pulmonary artery and right ventricle narrowing of the pulmonary outflow tract causing obstruction of blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery during systoledeep vein thrombosis - Answer blood clot forms in a large vein, usually in a lower limb d/t impaired venous return, endothelial injury or hypercoagulability thrombi - Answer __ consist of thrombin, fibrin, and red blood cells with few platelets and without treatment can travel to the lungs causing PE Hypertension - Answer high blood pressure sustained SBP 130 BP= cardiac output x total peripheral vascular resistance (TPR) HTN leads to ↑ CO, ↑ TPR Thank You for Your Purchase! 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