ANCC Review Questions
(PMHNP IQ) Exam Questions
with Complete Solutions
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane) - Correct Answers: A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the recommended direct
acting dopamine receptor agonist to help decrease the dopamine blockade. Danrolene (Dantrium) is a
muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin) and Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are anticholinergic medications
used for extrapyramidal side effects (EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for over 4 years.
Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is strictly contraindicated with
Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine - Correct Answers: D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a patient is treated on a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the following
actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
, D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - Correct Answers: B)
Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or granulocytes
of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune system. At a WBC of 4,000, the
recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential twice a week while patient may continue
clozapine in the absence of any other signs or symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide attempts. The
PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only antipsychotic to reduce the risk
of suicide in schizophrenia?
A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
D) Clozaril (clozapine) - Correct Answers: D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic
medication that had been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po daily for the
past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an outpatient follow-up visit.
During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well, reporting the flu. She also states she has
not taken her medication in the last five days. Which of the following symptoms would she be describing
if you suspect selective serotonin reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea. - Correct Answers: A) Agitation; nausea,
dysphoria, and disequilibrium
The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like symptoms. If the
patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of autonomic instability.
(PMHNP IQ) Exam Questions
with Complete Solutions
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane) - Correct Answers: A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the recommended direct
acting dopamine receptor agonist to help decrease the dopamine blockade. Danrolene (Dantrium) is a
muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin) and Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are anticholinergic medications
used for extrapyramidal side effects (EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for over 4 years.
Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is strictly contraindicated with
Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine - Correct Answers: D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a patient is treated on a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the following
actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
, D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - Correct Answers: B)
Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or granulocytes
of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune system. At a WBC of 4,000, the
recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential twice a week while patient may continue
clozapine in the absence of any other signs or symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide attempts. The
PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only antipsychotic to reduce the risk
of suicide in schizophrenia?
A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
D) Clozaril (clozapine) - Correct Answers: D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic
medication that had been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po daily for the
past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an outpatient follow-up visit.
During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well, reporting the flu. She also states she has
not taken her medication in the last five days. Which of the following symptoms would she be describing
if you suspect selective serotonin reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea. - Correct Answers: A) Agitation; nausea,
dysphoria, and disequilibrium
The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like symptoms. If the
patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of autonomic instability.
