Quizzing) Review with Correct answers
Which required noninvasive assessment and management skills certification would the nurse
need to perform airway maintenance and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
- Basic Life Support (BLS)
- Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN)
- Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)
- Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) - correct answer Basic Life Support (BLS)
rationale: BLS is the certification for emergency nursing that includes assessment and
management skills for airway maintenance and CPR. CEN is emergency nursing certification that
validates the core emergency nursing knowledge base. ACLS involves invasive airway
management skills, pharmacology, electrical therapies, and special resuscitation. PALS involves
neonatal and pediatric resuscitation.
A client is receiving haloperidol for agitation, and the nurse is monitoring the client for side
effects. Which response identified by the nurse is unrelated to an extrapyramidal tract effect?
- Akathisia
- Opisthotonos
- Oculogyric crisis
- Hypertensive crisis - correct answer Hypertensive crisis
rationale: A hypertensive crisis is not associated with extrapyramidal tract symtoms. Akathisia,
characterized by restlessness and twitching or crawling sensations in the muscles, is an
extrapyramidal side effect.
Opisthotonos, characterized by hyperextension and arching of the back, is an extrapyramidal
side effect.
Oculogyric crisis, characterized by the uncontrolled upward movement of the eyes, is an
extrapyramidal side effect.
A client who has been taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for 5 days returns to the clinic for
a follow-up visit. Which statement by the client indicates the medication has been effective?
,- "I have less pain."
- "I have been sleeping better."
- "My blood glucose is under control!"
- "My blood pressure is coming down." - correct answer "I have been sleeping better."
rationale: Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic that produces central nervous system depression in
the limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic areas of the brain. Zolpidem is not an analgesic,
antidiabetic, or antihypertensive medication.
Which action is accurate in explaining how neuroleptic medications act in the body to promote
mental health for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia?
- They inhibit enzymes at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They decrease serotonin at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They increase dopamine uptake at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They block access to dopamine receptors at the postsynaptic receptor site. - correct answer
They block access to dopamine receptors at the postsynaptic receptor site
rationale: Neuroleptics block access to dopamine receptors, rather than inhibiting enzymes, at
postsynaptic sites. They increase, not decrease, serotonin at postsynaptic sites.
A client with a history of schizophrenia, who responds poorly to medication, is now being
treated for acute depression. Which informaton would the nurse provide in light of the
information elicited from the medication list and laboratory results?
Laboratory Results
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 45%.
Red blood cells (RBCs): 48 × 10/ml.
Platelet count: 150,000 mm
White blood cells (WBCs): 3,500 mm
Neutrophils: 100 mm
,Medications
Clozapine
Fluoxetine
- "Come in for weekly blood tests to monitor for medication-induced agranulocytosis."
- "Report incidents of unusual bleeding or easy bruising while taking fluoxetine."
- "Expect to be prescribed only 1 week's supply of fluoxetine at a time.*
- "Consume a high-protein diet to offset the risk of anemia while taking clozapine. - correct
answer "Come in for weekly blood tests to monitor for medication-induced agranulocytosis."
rationale: The antipsychotic medication clozapine poses a risk for the development of
agranulocytosis, especially when combined with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor such as
fluoxetine. The client's neutrophil and white blood cell counts (WBCs) are borderline and
therefore suggestive of the disorder. Weekly blood testing to monitor these blood values is
required. The client's platelet count is in the low-normal range, but fluoxetine is not generally
considered a factor in bleeding disorders. Clozapine, not fluoxetine, would likely be prescribed
on a week-by-week basis to both help manage side effects and encourage weekly visits for lab
work. Clozapine is not generally considered a factor in the development of anemia.
Phenytoin suspension 200 mg is prescribed for a client with epilepsy. The suspension contains
125 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer? - correct answer 8 mL
rationale: The prescribed dose is 200 mg. The available concentration is 125 mg in 5 mL. Use
the dimensional analysis and ratio and proportion methods to determine how many milliliters
the nurse would administer. 200 mg x 5
mL/125 mg = 8 mL.
A client is to receive 0.22 g of zinc sulfate by mouth. Each tablet contains 110 mg. How many
tablets will the nurse administer? - correct answer 2 tablets
, rationale: The prescribed dose is 0.22 g. The medication is available in 110 mg tablets. First,
convert the prescribed dose in grams to the available medication in milligrams. Then use the
dimensional analysis and ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate number
of tablets to be administered. 0.22 g × 1000 mg/g x
1 tablet/110 mg = 2 tablets.
Atenolol 150 mg by mouth is prescribed for a client with hypertension. Each tablet contains 50
mg. How many tablets will the nurse administer? - correct answer 3 tablets
rationale: Use the dimensional analysis and or ratio and proportion method to determine how
many tablets the nurse would administer. 150 mg × 1 tablet/50 mg = 3 tablets.
Which medication is the first choice of medication for the treatment of attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- Clonidine
- Guanfacine
- Atomoxetine
- Methylphenidate - correct answer Methylphenidate
rationale: Methylphenidate is the first choice of medication for the treatment of attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Clonidine, guanfacine, and atomoxetine are
nonstimulants used to treat ADHD; these medications are less effective than methylphenidate.
Which medication is indicated to treat shift-work sleep disorder (SWSD)?
- Caffeine
- Modafinil
- Atomoxetine
- Methylphenidate - correct answer Modafinil
rationale: Modafinil is a unique nonamphetamine stimulant used to treat SWSD. This
medication promotes wakefulness in clients suffering from excessive sleepiness associated with
SWSD. Caffeine is a central nervous stimulant used to promote wakefulness, but this
medication is not as effective in the treatment of SWSD. Atomoxetine is a nonstimulant used to