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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Test – Fully Solved Questions with Trusted Answers, Most Accurate A+ Review Edition for 2025

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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Test – Fully Solved Questions with Trusted Answers, Most Accurate A+ Review Edition for 2025

Instelling
ATI Comprehensive.
Vak
ATI Comprehensive.

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Test – Fully
Solved Questions with Trusted Answers, Most
Accurate A+ Review Edition for 2025



Instructions
The following 80 multiple-choice questions are designed to assess your knowledge across
Medical-Surgical, Obstetrics, Pediatrics, Pharmacology, Psychiatric Nursing, and Lead-
ership for the ATI Comprehensive Predictor. Each question includes four answer options
(A–D), with the correct answer marked and a brief rationale provided. Select the best
answer for each question.
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which finding indicates
fluid overload?
A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
B. Crackles in the lung bases
C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
D. Clear urine output of 50 mL/hour
Correct Answer: B. Crackles in the lung bases
Rationale: Crackles indicate pulmonary edema due to fluid overload, a
common complication of heart failure.
Question 2: A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breastfeeding. Which posi-
tion is recommended post-cesarean section?
A. Cradle hold
B. Football hold
C. Cross-cradle hold
D. Supine position
Correct Answer: B. Football hold
Rationale: The football hold avoids pressure on the abdominal incision,
promoting comfort during breastfeeding.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a 5-year-old child with asthma. Which symptom re-
quires immediate action?
A. Wheezing on expiration
B. Use of accessory muscles
C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
D. Peak flow reading in the green zone
Correct Answer: B. Use of accessory muscles
Rationale: Accessory muscle use indicates severe respiratory distress, re-

1

, quiring immediate intervention.
Question 4: A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which laboratory value should
be checked prior to administration?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Correct Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, so potas-
sium levels must be monitored.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hal-
lucinations. Which response is most therapeutic?
A. “Those voices aren’t real; ignore them.”
B. “I don’t hear the voices, but they must be distressing.”
C. “Tell the voices to stop talking to you.”
D. “Why are you hearing voices today?”
Correct Answer: B. “I don’t hear the voices, but they must be distress-
ing.”
Rationale: This response validates the client’s experience while gently
reinforcing reality, promoting trust.
Question 6: A nurse manager is addressing a conflict between staff members. Which
approach is most effective?
A. Ignoring the conflict to avoid escalation
B. Facilitating a mediated discussion
C. Reassigning one staff member to another unit
D. Disciplining both staff members immediately
Correct Answer: B. Facilitating a mediated discussion
Rationale: Mediation promotes collaboration and resolution while main-
taining a positive work environment.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
intervention is a priority?
A. Administering oral glucose
B. Initiating IV insulin infusion
C. Providing a high-carbohydrate diet
D. Restricting all fluid intake
Correct Answer: B. Initiating IV insulin infusion
Rationale: IV insulin corrects hyperglycemia and halts ketone production
in DKA.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks gestation. Which finding indicates
preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
B. Blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg with 2+ proteinuria
C. Weight gain of 1 pound per week
D. Mild pedal edema
Correct Answer: B. Blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg with 2+ protein-


2

, uria
Rationale: Hypertension and proteinuria are hallmark signs of preeclamp-
sia, requiring immediate evaluation.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old with a fever. Which temperature requires
immediate action?
A. 99.5°F (37.5°C) orally
B. 100.4°F (38°C) rectally
C. 104°F (40°C) rectally
D. 98.6°F (37°C) axillary
Correct Answer: C. 104°F (40°C) rectally
Rationale: A rectal temperature of 104°F in a toddler indicates a high
fever, requiring urgent intervention.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin. Which laboratory value should
be monitored?
A. Platelet count
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: INR monitors the therapeutic effect of warfarin and ensures
safe anticoagulation.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a manic phase. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encouraging group activities to expend energy
B. Providing a high-stimulation environment
C. Limiting choices to reduce decision-making stress
D. Allowing the client to skip scheduled meals
Correct Answer: C. Limiting choices to reduce decision-making stress
Rationale: Simplifying choices helps reduce anxiety and overstimulation
during a manic episode.
Question 12: A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).
Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Assessing a client’s pain level
B. Administering oral medications
C. Assisting with a client’s bath
D. Developing a client’s care plan
Correct Answer: C. Assisting with a client’s bath
Rationale: Assisting with bathing is within the UAP’s scope of practice,
unlike assessment or medication administration.
Question 13: A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which intervention promotes oxygenation?
A. Administering oxygen at 10 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Positioning the client in a supine position
C. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques
D. Encouraging shallow breathing to conserve energy


3

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