ATI Comprehensive Exam TEST BANK WITH ALL VERSIONS OF THE EXAM WITH ALLMODULES COVERED | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR GUARANTEED PASS| LATEST UPDATE

1. A child is taking valproic acid. What diagnostic test should the healthcare provider order? A. Complete blood count B. Serum liver enzyme levels C. Blood glucose level D. Serum potassium level Correct Answer: B. Serum liver enzyme levels Rationale: Valproic acid can cause hepatic toxicity; therefore, monitoring liver enzymes is essential. 2. A patient with schizophrenia has started taking risperidone. What action should the nurse take? A. Offer high-protein meals B. Monitor blood glucose levels C. Implement fall precautions D. Provide a quiet environment Correct Answer: C. Implement fall precautions Rationale: Risperidone can cause orthostatic hypotension and dizziness, increasing the risk of falls. 3. A child in the ED has a fever and fluid-filled vesicles on the trunk and extremities. What is the priority intervention? A. Administer acetaminophen B. Apply calamine lotion C. Initiate transmission-based precautions D. Administer IV fluids Correct Answer: C. Initiate transmission-based precautions Rationale: The symptoms suggest varicella, a highly infectious disease requiring isolation. 4. Which of the following is an expected finding in compartment syndrome? A. Hypothermia B. Edema C. Bradycardia D. Warm skin Correct Answer: B. Edema Rationale: Compartment syndrome involves increased pressure and swelling in a confined space, leading to edema. 5. What is an adverse effect of epinephrine during anaphylactic treatment? A. Diarrhea B. Chest pain C. Hypotension D. Drowsiness Correct Answer: B. Chest pain Rationale: Epinephrine increases cardiac workload, which can result in chest pain or angina. 6. What should a nurse include in instructions for a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks gestation? A. Eat a high-carb meal before the test B. Avoid exercise for 24 hours C. Fast the night before the test D. Take insulin prior to the test Correct Answer: C. Fast the night before the test Rationale: Fasting ensures accuracy of the glucose tolerance test. 7. An older adult with pneumonia is being assessed. Which finding should the nurse expect? A. Productive cough B. Chest pain C. Acute confusion D. Hyperactivity Correct Answer: C. Acute confusion Rationale: Older adults often present with confusion, fatigue, or anorexia rather than classic symptoms. 8. A patient has had nausea and vomiting for 2 days. What lab value should the nurse expect? A. Urine specific gravity of 1.010 B. Urine specific gravity of 1.052 C. Serum sodium of 136 D. Blood glucose of 110 Correct Answer: B. Urine specific gravity of 1.052 Rationale: A high specific gravity indicates dehydration due to fluid loss. 9. A postoperative patient under moderate sedation becomes restless and lightheaded. What is the priority action? A. Notify the provider B. Increase IV fluids C. Check O2 saturation D. Elevate the head of bed Correct Answer: C. Check O2 saturation Rationale: These symptoms suggest hypoxia, so assessing oxygenation is the first priority. 10. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia in a patient with type 1 diabetes? A. Bradycardia B. Irritability C. Weight gain D. Increased thirst Correct Answer: B. Irritability Rationale: Irritability is a common early sign of hypoglycemia. 11. What instruction should be given to a patient with a DVT? A. Apply warm compresses B. Massage the limb C. Elevate the affected extremity when sitting D. Walk vigorously every hour Correct Answer: C. Elevate the affected extremity when sitting Rationale: This helps reduce edema and promote venous return. 12. What should a nurse include when preparing a patient for a Romberg test? A. "You will walk in a straight line" B. "You’ll be tested with your eyes open and closed" C. "You’ll need to jump in place" D. "You’ll be asked to count backwards" Correct Answer: B. You’ll be tested with your eyes open and closed Rationale: The Romberg test evaluates balance with and without visual input. 13. What instruction is appropriate for a parent of a child with autism spectrum disorder? A. Use time-out methods consistently B. Use a reward system to modify behavior C. Enforce strict social activities D. Encourage large group play Correct Answer: B. Use a reward system to modify behavior Rationale: Positive reinforcement helps structure and encourage appropriate behaviors. 14. What is a common adverse effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A. Tinnitus B. Short-term memory loss C. Photosensitivity D. Weight gain Correct Answer: B. Short-term memory loss Rationale: This is a common, temporary side effect of ECT. 15. A patient is prescribed chlorpromazine. What finding indicates the medication is effective? A. Improved appetite B. Decreased hallucinations C. Reduced nausea D. Lower blood pressure Correct Answer: B. Decreased hallucinations Rationale: Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic used to reduce psychotic symptoms. 16. A child with thrombocytopenia should avoid which action? A. Playing outside B. Drinking water C. Blowing the nose D. Watching TV Correct Answer: C. Blowing the nose Rationale: Nose blowing can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic patients. 17. Which lab value should be reported in a patient with end-stage kidney disease posthemodialysis? A. Sodium 148 B. Potassium 4.8 C. Hemoglobin 12 D. Creatinine 2.0 Correct Answer: A. Sodium 148 Rationale: This indicates hypernatremia; sodium should be within 135–145 mEq/L. 18. A patient with magnesium level of 2.5 mg/dL requires what intervention? A. Give magnesium supplements B. Provide extra fluids C. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring D. Restrict sodium intake Correct Answer: C. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring Rationale: Hypermagnesemia can cause cardiac dysrhythmias. 19. Which nutrient should a patient with Crohn's disease and enteroenteric fistula decrease? A. Protein B. Fiber C. Iron D. Vitamin C Correct Answer: B. Fiber Rationale: Low-fiber diets reduce bowel irritation and residue. 20. What finding is expected in the resuscitation phase of a burn injury? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyponatremia C. Decreased hematocrit D. Hypokalemia Correct Answer: B. Hyponatremia Rationale: Sodium shifts into edematous tissues and is lost via plasma leakage. 21. What instruction should be given before an oral glucose tolerance test at 26 weeks gestation? A. Drink orange juice before the test B. Avoid caffeine C. Eat a high-carb meal D. Take prenatal vitamins Correct Answer: B. Avoid caffeine Rationale: Caffeine can elevate glucose levels and should be avoided. 22. Which finding is associated with hyperthyroidism? A. Weight gain B. Tremors C. Cold intolerance D. Bradycardia Correct Answer: B. Tremors Rationale: Hyperthyroidism causes tremors, tachycardia, and heat intolerance. 23. Which pregnant patient requires seizure precautions? A. 36 weeks with gestational diabetes B. 33 weeks with severe gestational hypertension C. 24 weeks with anemia D. 28 weeks with hyperemesis gravidarum Correct Answer: B. 33 weeks with severe gestational hypertension Rationale: Severe hypertension increases seizure risk (eclampsia). 24. What should the nurse ask a patient who has taken ibuprofen for 6 months to assess adverse effects? A. Do you have swelling in your hands? B. Have you had any stomach pain or bloody stools? C. Are you experiencing frequent headaches? D. Do you have dry mouth? Correct Answer: B. Have you had any stomach pain or bloody stools? Rationale: GI bleeding is a serious adverse effect of long-term NSAID use. 25. A patient with chronic anorexia is receiving enteral feeding. Which lab value suggests additional nutrients are needed? A. Albumin 4.0 B. Albumin 2.8 C. Glucose 95 D. Hematocrit 40% Correct Answer: B. Albumin 2.8 Rationale: Low albumin indicates poor nutritional status and protein deficiency.