PN VATI Pharmacology – In-Depth Study Pack with 100%
Verified Solutions
Instructions
This study pack contains 80 in-depth multiple-choice pharmacology questions aligned with PN
VATI standards for practical nursing. Each question includes a verified answer and a detailed
rationale based on current pharmacological principles. The content is formatted for professional
PDF usage. Read each question carefully and select the best answer.
Questions
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client with atrial fibrillation.
The client’s apical pulse is 58 beats per minute. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
B. Withhold the dose and notify the provider.
C. Recheck the pulse in 15 minutes.
D. Administer half the dose.
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate, and an apical pulse below 60 beats per minute in-
dicates potential bradycardia, a sign of digoxin toxicity risk. Withholding the dose and
notifying the provider is the safest action to prevent adverse effects.
Question 2: A client is receiving heparin 8,000 units IV bolus. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor closely?
A. International normalized ratio (INR)
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Prothrombin time (PT)
D. Serum potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using aPTT, with a therapeutic
range of 1.5–2.5 times the control value. INR and PT are used for warfarin, and potassium
is unrelated to heparin’s action.
Question 3: A client prescribed warfarin 5 mg PO daily asks about dietary restrictions. Which food
should the nurse advise the client to consume in moderation?
A. Broccoli
B. Potatoes
C. Apples
D. Rice
1
, Answer: A
Rationale: Broccoli is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin’s anticoagulant
effect, potentially reducing its efficacy. Consistent moderation of vitamin K-rich foods
maintains therapeutic INR levels.
Question 4: A client newly prescribed metformin 500 mg PO twice daily reports nausea. What should
the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the medication.
B. Take the medication with meals.
C. Take the medication at bedtime only.
D. Switch to an extended-release formulation.
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin’s gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea, are reduced when
taken with meals. Discontinuing or altering the regimen requires provider approval.
Question 5: A nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV to a client with pulmonary edema. Which
outcome indicates the medication’s effectiveness?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased heart rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, promotes fluid excretion, reducing fluid overload
in pulmonary edema. Increased urine output is a direct indicator of effectiveness.
Question 6: A client is prescribed lisinopril 10 mg PO daily for hypertension. Which adverse effect
should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Tachycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits aldosterone, reducing potassium excre-
tion and risking hyperkalemia. Other options are not common adverse effects.
Question 7: A client with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine 20 units subcutaneously daily.
When should this medication be administered?
A. Before meals
B. At bedtime
C. With breakfast
2
, D. After exercise
Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is administered at bedtime to provide
steady glucose control over 24 hours without peaking.
Question 8: A client using albuterol via inhaler for asthma reports shakiness. What should the nurse
do?
A. Discontinue the inhaler.
B. Instruct the client to report this as an expected side effect.
C. Administer a rescue inhaler.
D. Notify the provider immediately.
Answer: B
Rationale: Shakiness (tremors) is a common side effect of albuterol, a beta-2 agonist,
due to sympathetic stimulation. The client should be educated to monitor but continue
use unless severe.
Question 9: A nurse is calculating amoxicillin for a child weighing 20 kg. The prescribed dose is 50
mg/kg/day in three divided doses. What is each dose?
A. 250 mg
B. 333 mg
C. 500 mg
D. 1000 mg
Answer: B
Rationale: Total daily dose: 50 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 1000 mg/day. Divided into three
doses: 1000 mg ÷ 3 ≈ 333 mg per dose.
Question 10: A client receiving vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours should be monitored for which
adverse effect?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Bradycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic, requiring monitoring of serum creatinine and
trough levels to prevent kidney damage.
Question 11: A client prescribed prednisone 20 mg PO daily for rheumatoid arthritis asks how to take
it. What should the nurse advise?
A. Take on an empty stomach.
B. Take with food.
3
Verified Solutions
Instructions
This study pack contains 80 in-depth multiple-choice pharmacology questions aligned with PN
VATI standards for practical nursing. Each question includes a verified answer and a detailed
rationale based on current pharmacological principles. The content is formatted for professional
PDF usage. Read each question carefully and select the best answer.
Questions
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to a client with atrial fibrillation.
The client’s apical pulse is 58 beats per minute. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
B. Withhold the dose and notify the provider.
C. Recheck the pulse in 15 minutes.
D. Administer half the dose.
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate, and an apical pulse below 60 beats per minute in-
dicates potential bradycardia, a sign of digoxin toxicity risk. Withholding the dose and
notifying the provider is the safest action to prevent adverse effects.
Question 2: A client is receiving heparin 8,000 units IV bolus. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor closely?
A. International normalized ratio (INR)
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. Prothrombin time (PT)
D. Serum potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using aPTT, with a therapeutic
range of 1.5–2.5 times the control value. INR and PT are used for warfarin, and potassium
is unrelated to heparin’s action.
Question 3: A client prescribed warfarin 5 mg PO daily asks about dietary restrictions. Which food
should the nurse advise the client to consume in moderation?
A. Broccoli
B. Potatoes
C. Apples
D. Rice
1
, Answer: A
Rationale: Broccoli is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin’s anticoagulant
effect, potentially reducing its efficacy. Consistent moderation of vitamin K-rich foods
maintains therapeutic INR levels.
Question 4: A client newly prescribed metformin 500 mg PO twice daily reports nausea. What should
the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the medication.
B. Take the medication with meals.
C. Take the medication at bedtime only.
D. Switch to an extended-release formulation.
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin’s gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea, are reduced when
taken with meals. Discontinuing or altering the regimen requires provider approval.
Question 5: A nurse administers furosemide 40 mg IV to a client with pulmonary edema. Which
outcome indicates the medication’s effectiveness?
A. Decreased respiratory rate
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased heart rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, promotes fluid excretion, reducing fluid overload
in pulmonary edema. Increased urine output is a direct indicator of effectiveness.
Question 6: A client is prescribed lisinopril 10 mg PO daily for hypertension. Which adverse effect
should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Tachycardia
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits aldosterone, reducing potassium excre-
tion and risking hyperkalemia. Other options are not common adverse effects.
Question 7: A client with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine 20 units subcutaneously daily.
When should this medication be administered?
A. Before meals
B. At bedtime
C. With breakfast
2
, D. After exercise
Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is administered at bedtime to provide
steady glucose control over 24 hours without peaking.
Question 8: A client using albuterol via inhaler for asthma reports shakiness. What should the nurse
do?
A. Discontinue the inhaler.
B. Instruct the client to report this as an expected side effect.
C. Administer a rescue inhaler.
D. Notify the provider immediately.
Answer: B
Rationale: Shakiness (tremors) is a common side effect of albuterol, a beta-2 agonist,
due to sympathetic stimulation. The client should be educated to monitor but continue
use unless severe.
Question 9: A nurse is calculating amoxicillin for a child weighing 20 kg. The prescribed dose is 50
mg/kg/day in three divided doses. What is each dose?
A. 250 mg
B. 333 mg
C. 500 mg
D. 1000 mg
Answer: B
Rationale: Total daily dose: 50 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 1000 mg/day. Divided into three
doses: 1000 mg ÷ 3 ≈ 333 mg per dose.
Question 10: A client receiving vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours should be monitored for which
adverse effect?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Bradycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic, requiring monitoring of serum creatinine and
trough levels to prevent kidney damage.
Question 11: A client prescribed prednisone 20 mg PO daily for rheumatoid arthritis asks how to take
it. What should the nurse advise?
A. Take on an empty stomach.
B. Take with food.
3
