CNIM 4 EXAM|| CNIM EXAM 4 ALL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+|| LATEST ANJD COMPLETE VERSION WITH
EXPERT SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS!!!
Which of the following components is most likely to be increased in amplitude by
synchronous bilateral stimulation of tibial nerves?
A- P37
B- PF
C- N13
D- N20 - ANSWER: A- P37
The criteria of abnormality during intraoperative EP monitoring are based on a
comparison of amplitude and latency to:
A- Post-induction baselines
B- Lab normative data
C- Intraoperative normative data
D- Pre-induction baselines - ANSWER: A- Post-induction baselines
Which of the following is most likely to happen when fluids enter the electrode
jackbox?
A- Various inputs may be short circuited
B- Nothing will happen to the data
C- Current limiters in the jackbox will continue to function normally
D- Evoked potential amplitude is enhanced - ANSWER: A- Various inputs may
be short circuited
,2|Page
Which pre-existing condition could compromise EEG in CEA?
A- Hemifacial spasm
B- Stroke
C- Migraine
D- Trigeminal neuralgia - ANSWER: B- Stroke
The post-central gyrus handles which function?
A- Somatosensory
B- Memory
C- Motor
D- Vision - ANSWER: A- Somatosensory
In spinal surgery, the primary purpose of the popliteal fossa recording electrode is
to
A- Verify adequacy of stimulus
B- Confirm amplifier integrity
C- Provide evidence of a muscle twitch
D- Limit current spread - ANSWER: A- Verify adequacy of stimulus
Fentanyl infusion will:
A- Increase latency and decrease amplitude
B- Have no affect on amplitude or latency
C- Increase amplitude and increase latency
D- Decrease amplitude only - ANSWER: A- Increase latency and decrease
amplitude
,3|Page
Surgical procedures within the posterior fossa may directly result in postoperative
deficits from damage to the:
A- Spinal cord
B- Brainstem
C- One cerebral hemisphere
D- Cauda equina - ANSWER: B- Brainstem
Which evoked potential is a combination of near and far field?
A- SSEP
B- P300
C- Electroretinogram
D- Pattern reversal VEP - ANSWER: A- SSEP
Dyskinesia
A- Abnormal sensation
B- Abnormal proprioception
C- Abnormal ringing in ears
D- Involuntary movement - ANSWER: D- Involuntary movement
Where should epidural electrodes be placed?
A- Within the dural membrane
B- On the dura
C- In the spinal cord
D- Between the dura and the spinal cord - ANSWER: B- On the dura
Imbalanced impedances:
, 4|Page
A- Reduce 60 Hz artifact
B- Degrade common mode rejection
C- Reduce stimulus artifact
D- Cause electrode polarization - ANSWER: B- Degrade common mode rejection
If you were recording MN SSEPs in the OR and it was very cold, what would you
expect to see?
A- Elongation of central conduction with no change in peripheral response latency
B- An elongation of the central conduction time with a later onset of peripheral
response
C- A later onset of the peripheral response but no change in central conduction
time
D- No effect on the waveforms - ANSWER: C- A later onset of the peripheral
response but no change in central conduction time
SSEPs are most appropriate for:
A- Microvascular decompression of facial nerve
B- Spinal instrumentation for scoliosis
C- Vestibular nerve section
D- Transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary adenoma - ANSWER: B- Spinal
instrumentation for scoliosis
Which derivation is scalp to non-cephalic?
A- CPc‐CPi
B- EPi‐EPc
C- Fz‐C5S
D- CPz‐Fz - ANSWER: C- Fz‐C5S