2024 ATI Pharmacology Proctored Retake Exam –
Actual Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed
Instructions
This exam contains 80 multiple-choice questions crafted to reflect the 2024 ATI Phar-
macology Proctored Retake Exam, focusing on drug classifications, medication safety,
administration routes, adverse effects, interactions, and dosage calculations per ATI stan-
dards. Each question includes a verified correct answer with a comprehensive rationale
to enhance understanding. Select the best answer for each question.
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer amiodarone IV to a client with ventricular tachy-
cardia. Which action is most important before administration?
A. Check the client’s blood pressure
B. Verify the client’s heart rhythm
C. Assess the client’s respiratory rate
D. Review the client’s serum sodium
Answer: B. Verify the client’s heart rhythm
Rationale: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic used for life-threatening arrhythmias
like ventricular tachycardia. Verifying the heart rhythm via ECG ensures the med-
ication is indicated. While blood pressure and respiratory rate are important,
confirming the arrhythmia is critical. Serum sodium is not directly relevant.
Question 2: A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed sitagliptin. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Hemoglobin A1c
C. Serum potassium
D. INR
Answer: B. Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, enhances glucose control. Hemoglobin
A1c monitors long-term glycemic control (target <7
Question 3: A nurse is administering lorazepam 2 mg IV to a client with status epilepticus.
Which adverse effect is most concerning?
A. Hypotension
B. Dry mouth
C. Nausea
D. Headache
1
, Answer: A. Hypotension
Rationale: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, can cause hypotension, especially when
given IV rapidly, posing a risk in status epilepticus. Dry mouth, nausea, and
headache are less critical. The nurse should monitor vital signs closely.
Question 4: A client is prescribed fluconazole for a fungal infection. Which instruction should
the nurse include?
A. Take with antacids
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Take on an empty stomach
D. Monitor for jaundice
Answer: D. Monitor for jaundice
Rationale: Fluconazole can cause hepatotoxicity. Jaundice indicates liver dysfunc-
tion and requires immediate reporting. Antacids do not affect absorption, alcohol
is not a primary concern, and it can be taken with or without food.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride over 6 hours.
What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?
A. 125 mL/hr
B. 150 mL/hr
C. 167 mL/hr
D. 200 mL/hr
Answer: C. 167 mL/hr
Rationale: To calculate: 1000 mL ÷ 6 hr � 166.67 mL/hr, rounded to 167 mL/hr.
The nurse should set the IV pump to this rate and monitor for fluid overload.
Question 6: A client with hypertension is prescribed losartan. Which side effect should the
nurse teach the client to report?
A. Dry cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Weight gain
D. Insomnia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Losartan, an ARB, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
secretion. Symptoms like muscle weakness or arrhythmias should be reported. Dry
cough is associated with ACE inhibitors, and weight gain or insomnia are not
typical.
Question 7: A nurse is administering cefazolin 1 g IV every 8 hours. The medication is recon-
stituted to 200 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
A. 2.5 mL
B. 5 mL
C. 7.5 mL
D. 10 mL
Answer: B. 5 mL
Rationale: To calculate: 1 g = 1000 mg. 1000 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 5 mL. The
nurse should administer 5 mL per dose and monitor for allergic reactions.
Question 8: A client with a history of asthma is prescribed which medication with caution?
A. Propranolol
2
, B. Amlodipine
C. Metformin
D. Omeprazole
Answer: A. Propranolol
Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, can cause bronchoconstric-
tion, exacerbating asthma. A selective beta-blocker or alternative is preferred. The
other medications are generally safe for asthma.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which over-the-counter medication
should the client avoid?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Ranitidine
Answer: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin
due to its antiplatelet effects. Acetaminophen is safer, and diphenhydramine or
ranitidine do not significantly interact.
Question 10: A client is prescribed morphine 4 mg IV for pain. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Pain level 3/10
B. Respiratory rate 8 breaths/min
C. Blood pressure 130/85 mm Hg
D. Heart rate 90 bpm
Answer: B. Respiratory rate 8 breaths/min
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. A rate of 8 breaths/min
indicates potential toxicity, requiring naloxone and provider notification. Other
findings are within acceptable ranges.
Question 11: A client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Hemoglobin
D. INR
Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced
aldosterone. Monitoring potassium (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L) is essential to prevent
arrhythmias.
Question 12: A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. When
should this medication be given?
A. 30 minutes before meals
B. Immediately before meals
C. 1 hour after meals
D. At bedtime
Answer: B. Immediately before meals
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, has an onset of 10–20 minutes and
is administered just before meals to control postprandial glucose spikes.
3
Actual Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed
Instructions
This exam contains 80 multiple-choice questions crafted to reflect the 2024 ATI Phar-
macology Proctored Retake Exam, focusing on drug classifications, medication safety,
administration routes, adverse effects, interactions, and dosage calculations per ATI stan-
dards. Each question includes a verified correct answer with a comprehensive rationale
to enhance understanding. Select the best answer for each question.
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer amiodarone IV to a client with ventricular tachy-
cardia. Which action is most important before administration?
A. Check the client’s blood pressure
B. Verify the client’s heart rhythm
C. Assess the client’s respiratory rate
D. Review the client’s serum sodium
Answer: B. Verify the client’s heart rhythm
Rationale: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic used for life-threatening arrhythmias
like ventricular tachycardia. Verifying the heart rhythm via ECG ensures the med-
ication is indicated. While blood pressure and respiratory rate are important,
confirming the arrhythmia is critical. Serum sodium is not directly relevant.
Question 2: A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed sitagliptin. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Hemoglobin A1c
C. Serum potassium
D. INR
Answer: B. Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, enhances glucose control. Hemoglobin
A1c monitors long-term glycemic control (target <7
Question 3: A nurse is administering lorazepam 2 mg IV to a client with status epilepticus.
Which adverse effect is most concerning?
A. Hypotension
B. Dry mouth
C. Nausea
D. Headache
1
, Answer: A. Hypotension
Rationale: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, can cause hypotension, especially when
given IV rapidly, posing a risk in status epilepticus. Dry mouth, nausea, and
headache are less critical. The nurse should monitor vital signs closely.
Question 4: A client is prescribed fluconazole for a fungal infection. Which instruction should
the nurse include?
A. Take with antacids
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Take on an empty stomach
D. Monitor for jaundice
Answer: D. Monitor for jaundice
Rationale: Fluconazole can cause hepatotoxicity. Jaundice indicates liver dysfunc-
tion and requires immediate reporting. Antacids do not affect absorption, alcohol
is not a primary concern, and it can be taken with or without food.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride over 6 hours.
What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?
A. 125 mL/hr
B. 150 mL/hr
C. 167 mL/hr
D. 200 mL/hr
Answer: C. 167 mL/hr
Rationale: To calculate: 1000 mL ÷ 6 hr � 166.67 mL/hr, rounded to 167 mL/hr.
The nurse should set the IV pump to this rate and monitor for fluid overload.
Question 6: A client with hypertension is prescribed losartan. Which side effect should the
nurse teach the client to report?
A. Dry cough
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Weight gain
D. Insomnia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Losartan, an ARB, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosterone
secretion. Symptoms like muscle weakness or arrhythmias should be reported. Dry
cough is associated with ACE inhibitors, and weight gain or insomnia are not
typical.
Question 7: A nurse is administering cefazolin 1 g IV every 8 hours. The medication is recon-
stituted to 200 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
A. 2.5 mL
B. 5 mL
C. 7.5 mL
D. 10 mL
Answer: B. 5 mL
Rationale: To calculate: 1 g = 1000 mg. 1000 mg ÷ 200 mg/mL = 5 mL. The
nurse should administer 5 mL per dose and monitor for allergic reactions.
Question 8: A client with a history of asthma is prescribed which medication with caution?
A. Propranolol
2
, B. Amlodipine
C. Metformin
D. Omeprazole
Answer: A. Propranolol
Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, can cause bronchoconstric-
tion, exacerbating asthma. A selective beta-blocker or alternative is preferred. The
other medications are generally safe for asthma.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which over-the-counter medication
should the client avoid?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Ranitidine
Answer: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin
due to its antiplatelet effects. Acetaminophen is safer, and diphenhydramine or
ranitidine do not significantly interact.
Question 10: A client is prescribed morphine 4 mg IV for pain. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Pain level 3/10
B. Respiratory rate 8 breaths/min
C. Blood pressure 130/85 mm Hg
D. Heart rate 90 bpm
Answer: B. Respiratory rate 8 breaths/min
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. A rate of 8 breaths/min
indicates potential toxicity, requiring naloxone and provider notification. Other
findings are within acceptable ranges.
Question 11: A client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Hemoglobin
D. INR
Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia due to reduced
aldosterone. Monitoring potassium (normal: 3.5–5.0 mEq/L) is essential to prevent
arrhythmias.
Question 12: A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. When
should this medication be given?
A. 30 minutes before meals
B. Immediately before meals
C. 1 hour after meals
D. At bedtime
Answer: B. Immediately before meals
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, has an onset of 10–20 minutes and
is administered just before meals to control postprandial glucose spikes.
3
