AMLS POST TEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED ANSWERS (UPDATED 2025) GRADED A+

AMLS POST TEST LATEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| VERIFIED ANSWERS A 45 year old patient is found supine on the floor of the Triage area. Healthcare providers note pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations and vomitus in and around the mouth. What course of action should be implemented next? A. Initiate an IV and administer naloxone B. Supplemental oxygen and suction C. Obtain a blood glucose level D. Begin bag-mask ventilation - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Patients with a history of chronic bronchitis that present with shortness of breath are likely to have which condition? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Angina pectoris C. Angioedema D. Hypertensive crisis - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) us characterized by what pathological change? A. Excessive mucus production B. Inflammation of the visceral pleura C. Breakdown of the alveolar-capillary membrane D. Accumulation of fluid between the pleural layers - CORRECT ANSWER- C. An anxious male complains of a sore throat, fever, chills, dental pain and dyspnea. the patient has a firm, red pronounced swelling in the sublingual anterior throat area and tongue. What diagnosis is most likely? A. Croup B. Tonsillitis C. Angioedema D. Ludwig's angina - CORRECT ANSWER- D.Patients on mechanical ventilation may have hypoxemia due to alveolar collapse from mucous plugging. The best treatment for this is: A. Increase oxygen concentration to 100% B. Increase tidal volume C. Increase respiratory rate D. Administer PEEP - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Anaphylaxis is most associated with which physiological event? A. Hemorrhage B. Vasodilation C. Bradycardia D. Hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER- B. An elderly patient in an assisted living facility presents with a diminished level of consciousness and elevated white blood count. Assessment reveals pale, clammy skin and a urinary catherter with dark colored urine. Vital signs are P132, R 38 and shallow, BP 78/46, SpO2 91% and T 100.8°F (32.8°C). What classification of shock is the patient most likely experiencing? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Distributive D. Obstuctive - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Healthcare providers are assessing a patient with pronounced jugular vein distention and muffled heart tones. Vitals are P 128, R 26, BP 74/52. What classification of shock should be suspected? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Distributive D. Obstuctive - CORRECT ANSWER- D. During compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated to cause a/an: A. Increase in preload, afterload and re-absorption of sodium B. Decrease in preload, afterload and re-absorption of sodium C. Increase in myocardial contractility D. Vasodilation and sodium retention - CORRECT ANSWER- A.A 42 year old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is taking glucocorticoids. Over the past two weeks, she complains of chronic fatigue, weakness, and loss of appetite with weight loss. Lab results indicate hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. What underlying diagnosis is suspected? A. Adrenal insuffiency B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Hypothryoidism D. Rhabdomyolysis - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Which condition should the healthcare provider consider to usually be a nonemergent, non-life threatening illness? A. Acute coronary syndrome B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Esophageal tear D. Aortic dissection - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Healthcare providers should use extreme caution with nitroglycerin when ST elevation is present in which ECG leads? A. V1, V2 B. V3, V4 C. I, aVL D. II, III, aVF - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Which is a high-risk factor for intracerebral hemorrhage? A. Marijuana B. Coronary artery spasm C. Bradycardia D. Cocaine drug abuse - CORRECT ANSWER- D. What is the initial treatment for a patient experiencing Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)? A. Crystalloid IV fluid resuscitation B. Administration of dextrose C. Administration of insulin D. Fluid bolus of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) - CORRECT ANSWER- A. What condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis? A. Anxiety/panic attack B. narcotic overdose C. Methanol ingestionD. Diabetic ketoacidosis - CORRECT ANSWER- B. What is the most effective treatment for an unconscious patient in respiratory acidosis? A. Assisted bag-mask ventilation B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Supportive care D. IV fluid bolus - CORRECT ANSWER- A. An autoimmune disease which produces antibodies that mimic the role of TSH and cause an increase in thyroid hormones is: A. Addison's disease B. Myxedema coma C. Grave's disease D. Diabetic ketoacidosis - CORRECT ANSWER- C. Glucagon may not be effective treatment for a patient with hypoglycemia if they also have which underlying illness? A. Alcoholism B. Cholecystitis C. Pancreatitis D. Hypothyroidism - CORRECT ANSWER- A. A 24 year old has completed a triathlon on a hot, humid day. The athlete complains of a severe headache, muscle cramps and abdominal pain. As the patient history is obtained, the athlete becomes lethargic. What underlying electrolyte disturbance should the healthcare provider most likely suspect? A. Magnesemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypokalemia - CORRECT ANSWER- B. What is the sign on the ECG that will indicate a patient is experiencing hyperkalemia? A. Flattened T waves B. Peaked T waves C. Narrowing of QRS complex D. Presence of Osborne wave - CORRECT ANSWER- B.An 82 year old alcoholic complains of nausea, non-bloody vomiting and severe epigastric and right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the back. Palpation reveals epigastric tenderness without peritoneal signs. What working diagnosis should be considered most likely? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Intestinal (bowel) obstruction C. Peptic ulcer D. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER- A. A 23 year old male complains of a productive cough, fever, chills and pleuritic chest pain that has worsened over 3 days. A physical exam reveals unilateral wheezing with shallow respirations. Vitals are P 128, R 26, BP 144/88, SpO2 90%, and T 102°F (38.8°C). What treatment should be performed? A. 12 Lead B. Beta blockers C. Initiate STEMI protocols D. Supplemental oxygen and immediate transport - CORRECT ANSWER- D. A patient with suspected gallbladder disease is asked to take a deep breath while the provider presses upward into the upper right quadrant. If the patient ceases inspiration due to increase pain while being examined, this is known as: A. Cullen's sign B. Rovsing's sign C. Muphy's sign D. Kehr's sign - CORRECT ANSWER- C. The patient is alert and oriented presenting with hypotension, bradycardia, normal capillary refill and warm, dry skin. These are cardinal signs of which type of distributive shock? A. Anaphylactic B. Neurogenic C. Septic D. Toxic shock syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER- B. During what period of the communicable disease process will antibodies begin to reach detectable levels and the infected blood will test positive for exposure to a pathogen? A. Communicability B. Incubation C. DiseaseD. Latent - CORRECT ANSWER- B. The patient presents with a history of headache, weight loss, chest discomfort, night sweats and a persistent cough for several weeks. Which infectious disease is most likely occurring? A. Novel H1N1 influenza B. Meningoccal meningitis C. Tuberculosis D. Malaria - CORRECT ANSWER- C. A lethargic patient presents with dilated pupils and vital signs of P 122, R 26 and BP 130/80. He admits to excessive ingestion of diphenhydramine. What response is the cause for the presenting signs and symptoms? A. Sympathomimetic B. Anticholinergic C. Cholinergic D. Opioid - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Organophosphate poisoning will present with which signs and symptoms? A. Dry mucous membranes and shock B. Altered mental status and flushed skin C. Euphoria and tachycardia D. Salivation and incontinence of urine and liquid stool - CORRECT ANSWERD. What medication classification should be administered to an uncooperative, agitated patient? A. Opioid B. Nitrate C. Benzodizepine D. Sympathomimetic - CORRECT ANSWER- C. A patient presents with mildly decreased mental status, slow respirations, bradycardia, hypotension, has a blood sugar of 42mg/dl (2.3mmol). This is most likely caused from excessive ingestion of: A. Calcium channel blockers B. Tricyclic antidepressants C. Beta blockers D. Salicylates - CORRECT ANSWER- C.The patient complains of a deep burning discomfort diffusely throughout the epigastrium. This is an example of which type of pain? A. Somatic B. Visceral C. Referred D. Radiating - CORRECT ANSWER- B. A 24 year old female presents with lower right quadrant abdominal pain. Her skin is hot to the touch and she exhibits a Psoas Sign. She complains of nausea and vomiting for 2 days. What diagnosis is suspected? A. Pancreatitis B. Appendicitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Ectopic pregnancy - CORRECT ANSWER- B. A known chronic alcoholic complains of the constant, severe mid-epigastric pain, nausea and blood-streaked emesis. The patient has a temperature of 101.9°F (38.8°C) and severe abdominal tenderness. What underlying diagnosis should be suspected? A. Gastritis B. Pancreatitis C. Diverticulitis D. Perforated gastric ulcer - CORRECT ANSWER- B. What component of a patient's past medical history is most helpful in considering myocardial infarction as a working diagnosis? A. Daily intake of an aspirin B. History of CHF C. Recent hip surgery D. Familial heart disease history - CORRECT ANSWER- D. A patient describes an "aching" sensation in his chest. It occurred suddenly while resting and radiates to the jaw. He self administered 1 nitroglycerin tablet without relief and the 12 lead reveals a normal sinus rhythm with ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What working diagnosis is most likely? A. Anterior wall myocardial injury B. Inferior wall myocardial injury C. Costochondritis D. Pericarditis - CORRECT ANSWER- B.Healthcare providers are managing a patient presenting with substernal chest discomfort. They describe the pain as "pressure-like" and it radiates to the jaw and left arm. The discomfort subsides with rest, oxygen and administration of nitroglycerin. What is the most likely working diagnosis? A. Pleurisy B. Angina pectoris C. Myocardial infarction D. Pulmonary embolism - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Which infectious disease must have oxygen present to survive? A. Tuberculosis B. Lung abscess C. Botulism D. Tetanus - CORRECT ANSWER- A. Which best practices help to prevent the spread of infectious disease? A. Alcohol based antimicrobial equipment cleaning and handwashing B. Goggles, gown and gloves for all patient contact C. Facial protection and gloves for all patient contact D. Handwashing before and after all patient contact and standard precautions. - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Continuous positive airway pressure would be most appropriate in treating which patient? A. 43 year old with decreased level of consciousness with respiratory difficulty B. 22 year old with severe asthma and not responding to nebulizer treatments C. 38 year old with carpal pedal spasms, clear lung sounds and respirations 40 times per minute D. 55 year old with jugular vein distention and BP 90/60 - CORRECT ANSWERB. A patient has attempted suicide by ingesting ethylene glycol about 20 hours prior to arriving for treatment. Lung sounds reveal bilateral crackles and respirations of 30 with symptoms of pulmonary edema and cyanosis of the lips. The ECG reveals ventricular tachycardia. Which stage of ethylene glycol poisoning has occurred? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 - CORRECT ANSWER- B.A patient with a history of Grave's disease presents with anxiety, perfuse sweating and a palpable goiter. Vitals are P 151, R 35 and labored, BP 84/42. Which working diagnosis is most likely? A. Myxedema B. Cocaine toxicity C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Diabetes insipidus - CORRECT ANSWER- C. A patient experiences unilateral facial weakness and droop, garbled speech, altered sense of taste and no extremity weakness. The patient has a history of Lyme's disease. What condition is the patient likely experiencing? A. Meningitis B. Bell's palsy C. Ischemic stroke D. Hemorrhagic stroke - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Which component of the history is most crucial when assessing a potential stroke patient? A. Time of onset B. Last oral intake C. Medication allergies D. Familial risk factors - CORRECT ANSWER- A. The determination of a working diagnosis is dependent on the provider's assessment, critical thinking and ____________________ __________________________ skills. A. Patter recognition B. Written documentation C. Radio communication D. Treatment intervention - CORRECT ANSWER- A. When performing a patient assessment, what information provides the most essential information in determining a working diagnosis? A. Ordering and correctly interpreting all diagnostic information B. A thorough head-to-toe examination on all patients C. Obtaining information from bystanders D. Medical history - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Clinical reasoning requires the healthcare provider to: A. Adequately communicate to peers regarding evidence-based practiceB. Order and interpret diagnostic testing results C. Adequately perform a physical assessment D. Process relevant information, filter out irrelevant information - CORRECT ANSWER- D. According to the AMLS Assessment Pathway, determining whether a patient is "Sick or Not Sick" is initially done which component of the assessment process? A. Detailed assessment B. First impression C. Initial observation D. Ongoing management - CORRECT ANSWER- B. Select an example of a communication barrier that impairs an efficient and thorough assessment process. A. The patient speaks clearly and is shy B. The patient's family is present in the home C. You and your patient communicate fluently in the Spanish language D. The patient can't find his hearing aid - CORRECT ANSWER- D. Healthcare providers are treating an unresponsive patient who overdosed on lorazepam. What intervention should be initiated? A. Airway support B. Administration of naloxone C. Gather a SAMPLE history D. Supplemental oxygen with nasal cannula - CORRECT ANSWER- A.