WGU D398 Pharmacology Study Guide 2025/2026 –
Verified Final Exam Content with 100% Correct
Solutions | Based on OA Format
Question 1: A client is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which electrolyte im-
balance should the nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, lead-
ing to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is critical to prevent ar-
rhythmias. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C), and hypocalcemia (D)
are not primary concerns with furosemide.
Question 2: A client receiving warfarin reports bleeding gums. What is the nurse’s pri-
ority action?
A. Administer vitamin C
B. Check INR levels
C. Increase the dose
D. Encourage oral hygiene
Correct Answer: B. Check INR levels
Rationale: Bleeding gums suggest excessive anticoagulation from warfarin.
Checking INR assesses therapeutic levels and guides adjustments. Vitamin
C (A) is irrelevant, increasing the dose (C) worsens bleeding, and oral hy-
giene (D) is secondary.
Question 3: Which instruction should the nurse provide for a client taking levothyrox-
ine?
A. Take at bedtime
B. Take with meals
C. Take in the morning on an empty stomach
D. Take with calcium supplements
Correct Answer: C. Take in the morning on an empty stomach
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach in the
morning to optimize thyroid hormone levels. Bedtime (A) or with meals
(B) reduces absorption. Calcium (D) interferes with absorption.
Question 4: A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the nurse moni-
tor?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Weight gain
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due
to bradykinin accumulation. Weight gain (B) and hypoglycemia (C) are not
typical. Hyperkalemia (D) is less common but possible.
1
,Question 5: A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. Which adverse
effect should the nurse assess?
A. Gingival hyperplasia
B. Hypertension
C. Hypokalemia
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia
Rationale: Phenytoin frequently causes gingival hyperplasia, requiring
oral hygiene monitoring. Hypertension (B), hypokalemia (C), and weight
gain (D) are not associated with phenytoin.
Question 6: A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which complication
is most concerning?
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A. Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, a life-threatening
condition, especially in renal impairment. Hyperkalemia (B), hypertension
(C), and weight gain (D) are not primary concerns.
Question 7: A client receiving heparin develops hematuria. What is the nurse’s first ac-
tion?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer vitamin K
D. Continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Hematuria indicates possible heparin-induced bleeding, requir-
ing immediate provider notification. Fluids (A) are secondary, vitamin K
(C) is for warfarin reversal, and monitoring (D) delays intervention.
Question 8: Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide for a client taking pred-
nisone?
A. Increase potassium-rich foods
B. Avoid calcium-rich foods
C. Limit protein intake
D. Increase sodium intake
Correct Answer: A. Increase potassium-rich foods
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause hypokalemia. Potassium-
rich foods help maintain levels. Calcium (B) is needed for bone health, pro-
tein (C) supports tissue repair, and sodium (D) should be limited.
Question 9: A client is prescribed digoxin. Which symptom indicates toxicity?
A. Increased appetite
B. Yellow-green vision
C. Improved energy
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B. Yellow-green vision
2
, Rationale: Visual disturbances, like yellow-green vision, are classic signs
of digoxin toxicity. Appetite (A), energy (C), and weight gain (D) are not
related.
Question 10: A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is its primary action?
A. Reduces inflammation
B. Dilates bronchioles
C. Suppresses cough
D. Thins secretions
Correct Answer: B. Dilates bronchioles
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, dilates bronchioles to relieve bron-
chospasm in asthma. Inflammation (A) is treated with corticosteroids, cough
(C) with antitussives, and secretions (D) with mucolytics.
Question 11: A client is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. Which adverse ef-
fect requires monitoring?
A. Pulmonary toxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Weight gain
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: A. Pulmonary toxicity
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse
effect requiring respiratory monitoring. Hypoglycemia (B), weight gain (C),
and hypernatremia (D) are not typical.
Question 12: A client taking ibuprofen reports epigastric pain. What should the nurse
recommend?
A. Take on an empty stomach
B. Take with food
C. Increase the dose
D. Stop the medication
Correct Answer: B. Take with food
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can cause gastric irritation. Taking with
food reduces this risk. Empty stomach (A) worsens irritation, increasing
the dose (C) is unsafe, and stopping (D) requires provider input.
Question 13: A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which
instruction is critical?
A. Take with dairy products
B. Avoid sunlight exposure
C. Stop if symptoms resolve
D. Take at bedtime only
Correct Answer: B. Avoid sunlight exposure
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin causes photosensitivity, requiring sun protection.
Dairy (A) reduces absorption, stopping early (C) risks resistance, and timing
(D) is flexible.
Question 14: A client with Parkinson’s disease is prescribed levodopa-carbidopa. Which
side effect is common?
A. Dyskinesia
3
Verified Final Exam Content with 100% Correct
Solutions | Based on OA Format
Question 1: A client is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which electrolyte im-
balance should the nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, lead-
ing to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is critical to prevent ar-
rhythmias. Hyperkalemia (A), hypernatremia (C), and hypocalcemia (D)
are not primary concerns with furosemide.
Question 2: A client receiving warfarin reports bleeding gums. What is the nurse’s pri-
ority action?
A. Administer vitamin C
B. Check INR levels
C. Increase the dose
D. Encourage oral hygiene
Correct Answer: B. Check INR levels
Rationale: Bleeding gums suggest excessive anticoagulation from warfarin.
Checking INR assesses therapeutic levels and guides adjustments. Vitamin
C (A) is irrelevant, increasing the dose (C) worsens bleeding, and oral hy-
giene (D) is secondary.
Question 3: Which instruction should the nurse provide for a client taking levothyrox-
ine?
A. Take at bedtime
B. Take with meals
C. Take in the morning on an empty stomach
D. Take with calcium supplements
Correct Answer: C. Take in the morning on an empty stomach
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach in the
morning to optimize thyroid hormone levels. Bedtime (A) or with meals
(B) reduces absorption. Calcium (D) interferes with absorption.
Question 4: A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the nurse moni-
tor?
A. Persistent dry cough
B. Weight gain
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due
to bradykinin accumulation. Weight gain (B) and hypoglycemia (C) are not
typical. Hyperkalemia (D) is less common but possible.
1
,Question 5: A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. Which adverse
effect should the nurse assess?
A. Gingival hyperplasia
B. Hypertension
C. Hypokalemia
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A. Gingival hyperplasia
Rationale: Phenytoin frequently causes gingival hyperplasia, requiring
oral hygiene monitoring. Hypertension (B), hypokalemia (C), and weight
gain (D) are not associated with phenytoin.
Question 6: A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which complication
is most concerning?
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A. Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, a life-threatening
condition, especially in renal impairment. Hyperkalemia (B), hypertension
(C), and weight gain (D) are not primary concerns.
Question 7: A client receiving heparin develops hematuria. What is the nurse’s first ac-
tion?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer vitamin K
D. Continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Hematuria indicates possible heparin-induced bleeding, requir-
ing immediate provider notification. Fluids (A) are secondary, vitamin K
(C) is for warfarin reversal, and monitoring (D) delays intervention.
Question 8: Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide for a client taking pred-
nisone?
A. Increase potassium-rich foods
B. Avoid calcium-rich foods
C. Limit protein intake
D. Increase sodium intake
Correct Answer: A. Increase potassium-rich foods
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause hypokalemia. Potassium-
rich foods help maintain levels. Calcium (B) is needed for bone health, pro-
tein (C) supports tissue repair, and sodium (D) should be limited.
Question 9: A client is prescribed digoxin. Which symptom indicates toxicity?
A. Increased appetite
B. Yellow-green vision
C. Improved energy
D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B. Yellow-green vision
2
, Rationale: Visual disturbances, like yellow-green vision, are classic signs
of digoxin toxicity. Appetite (A), energy (C), and weight gain (D) are not
related.
Question 10: A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is its primary action?
A. Reduces inflammation
B. Dilates bronchioles
C. Suppresses cough
D. Thins secretions
Correct Answer: B. Dilates bronchioles
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, dilates bronchioles to relieve bron-
chospasm in asthma. Inflammation (A) is treated with corticosteroids, cough
(C) with antitussives, and secretions (D) with mucolytics.
Question 11: A client is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. Which adverse ef-
fect requires monitoring?
A. Pulmonary toxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Weight gain
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: A. Pulmonary toxicity
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse
effect requiring respiratory monitoring. Hypoglycemia (B), weight gain (C),
and hypernatremia (D) are not typical.
Question 12: A client taking ibuprofen reports epigastric pain. What should the nurse
recommend?
A. Take on an empty stomach
B. Take with food
C. Increase the dose
D. Stop the medication
Correct Answer: B. Take with food
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can cause gastric irritation. Taking with
food reduces this risk. Empty stomach (A) worsens irritation, increasing
the dose (C) is unsafe, and stopping (D) requires provider input.
Question 13: A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which
instruction is critical?
A. Take with dairy products
B. Avoid sunlight exposure
C. Stop if symptoms resolve
D. Take at bedtime only
Correct Answer: B. Avoid sunlight exposure
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin causes photosensitivity, requiring sun protection.
Dairy (A) reduces absorption, stopping early (C) risks resistance, and timing
(D) is flexible.
Question 14: A client with Parkinson’s disease is prescribed levodopa-carbidopa. Which
side effect is common?
A. Dyskinesia
3
