1
EPPP Psychology Licensing Exam 2025 | 200
Actual Questions with Verified Correct
Answers and Detailed Rationales | A+
Graded Version
Question 1
Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the regulation of mood and emotion?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA
Correct Answer: C. Serotonin
Rationale: Serotonin is a key neurotransmitter involved in mood regulation, emotional stability,
and behaviors such as sleep and appetite. Dysregulation of serotonin is implicated in disorders
like depression and anxiety. Acetylcholine is linked to memory and muscle movement, dopamine
to reward and motivation, and GABA to inhibitory functions in the brain.
Question 2
A client exhibits classical conditioning when they associate a neutral stimulus with an
unconditioned stimulus. This process is best described as:
A. Operant conditioning
B. Stimulus generalization
C. Pavlovian conditioning
D. Observational learning
Correct Answer: C. Pavlovian conditioning
Rationale: Classical conditioning, also known as Pavlovian conditioning, involves pairing a
neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response, as demonstrated
in Pavlov’s experiments with dogs. Operant conditioning involves reinforcement or punishment,
stimulus generalization extends responses to similar stimuli, and observational learning involves
learning by observing others.
Question 3
, 2
In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which stage is characterized by the ability to think
abstractly and hypothetically?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Correct Answer: D. Formal operational
Rationale: The formal operational stage (adolescence to adulthood) in Piaget’s theory is marked
by abstract and hypothetical thinking, enabling problem-solving without concrete referents. The
sensorimotor stage involves sensory and motor actions, preoperational stage centers on symbolic
thought with egocentrism, and concrete operational stage involves logical thinking about
concrete objects.
Question 4
A psychologist is using the DSM-5 to diagnose a client with persistent sadness, anhedonia, and
sleep disturbances. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Dysthymic disorder
Correct Answer: B. Major depressive disorder
Rationale: Major depressive disorder (MDD) in the DSM-5 is characterized by persistent
sadness, anhedonia (loss of interest), and symptoms like sleep disturbances for at least two
weeks. Bipolar disorder includes manic episodes, generalized anxiety disorder focuses on
excessive worry, and dysthymic disorder (persistent depressive disorder) involves chronic but
less severe symptoms.
Question 5
Which ethical principle emphasizes doing no harm to clients?
A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
Correct Answer: B. Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Nonmaleficence, a core ethical principle in the APA Ethics Code, obligates
psychologists to avoid harming clients. Beneficence involves promoting well-being, autonomy
respects client decision-making, and justice ensures fairness in treatment.
Question 6
A researcher finds a correlation coefficient of -0.75 between stress and job performance. This
indicates:
A. A weak positive relationship
, 3
B. A strong negative relationship
C. No relationship
D. A causal relationship
Correct Answer: B. A strong negative relationship
Rationale: A correlation coefficient of -0.75 indicates a strong negative relationship, meaning as
stress increases, job performance decreases. A weak positive relationship would be closer to 0,
no relationship would be near 0, and correlation does not imply causation.
Question 7
Which brain structure is primarily responsible for regulating basic survival functions like heart
rate and breathing?
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Amygdala
D. Hippocampus
Correct Answer: B. Medulla oblongata
Rationale: The medulla oblongata, located in the brainstem, regulates vital functions such as
heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the amygdala
processes emotions, and the hippocampus is involved in memory formation.
Question 8
In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), automatic thoughts are best described as:
A. Deliberate and conscious beliefs
B. Unconscious drives
C. Spontaneous and often distorted cognitions
D. Learned behavioral responses
Correct Answer: C. Spontaneous and often distorted cognitions
Rationale: Automatic thoughts in CBT are spontaneous, often negative or distorted cognitions
that influence emotions and behaviors. They are not deliberate, unconscious drives
(psychodynamic), or purely behavioral responses.
Question 9
A client from a collectivist culture values family input in therapy decisions. The psychologist
should:
A. Ignore family input to maintain autonomy
B. Incorporate family perspectives respectfully
C. Refuse to involve family members
D. Insist on individual decision-making
Correct Answer: B. Incorporate family perspectives respectfully
Rationale: Cultural competence requires respecting collectivist values, which prioritize family
and community input. Incorporating family perspectives aligns with APA guidelines for
, 4
culturally sensitive practice, while ignoring or refusing family involvement disregards the
client’s cultural context.
Question 10
Which attachment style is characterized by difficulty trusting others and avoiding close
relationships?
A. Secure
B. Anxious-preoccupied
C. Dismissive-avoidant
D. Fearful-avoidant
Correct Answer: C. Dismissive-avoidant
Rationale: Dismissive-avoidant attachment, per Ainsworth and Bowlby, involves discomfort
with closeness and a preference for independence, often due to distrust. Secure individuals form
healthy relationships, anxious-preoccupied seek excessive closeness, and fearful-avoidant fear
both intimacy and rejection.
Question 11
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is most likely to benefit from which
treatment?
A. Psychoanalysis
B. Exposure and response prevention
C. Client-centered therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
Correct Answer: B. Exposure and response prevention
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP), a CBT technique, is the gold standard for
OCD, exposing clients to triggers while preventing compulsive responses. Psychoanalysis
explores unconscious conflicts, client-centered therapy focuses on empathy, and interpersonal
therapy addresses relationships, none of which are primary for OCD.
Question 12
Which statistical test is used to compare means between two independent groups?
A. ANOVA
B. Chi-square test
C. Independent t-test
D. Paired t-test
Correct Answer: C. Independent t-test
Rationale: The independent t-test compares means between two independent groups (e.g.,
treatment vs. control). ANOVA is for multiple groups, chi-square tests categorical data, and
paired t-tests compare means within the same group.
Question 13
EPPP Psychology Licensing Exam 2025 | 200
Actual Questions with Verified Correct
Answers and Detailed Rationales | A+
Graded Version
Question 1
Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the regulation of mood and emotion?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA
Correct Answer: C. Serotonin
Rationale: Serotonin is a key neurotransmitter involved in mood regulation, emotional stability,
and behaviors such as sleep and appetite. Dysregulation of serotonin is implicated in disorders
like depression and anxiety. Acetylcholine is linked to memory and muscle movement, dopamine
to reward and motivation, and GABA to inhibitory functions in the brain.
Question 2
A client exhibits classical conditioning when they associate a neutral stimulus with an
unconditioned stimulus. This process is best described as:
A. Operant conditioning
B. Stimulus generalization
C. Pavlovian conditioning
D. Observational learning
Correct Answer: C. Pavlovian conditioning
Rationale: Classical conditioning, also known as Pavlovian conditioning, involves pairing a
neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response, as demonstrated
in Pavlov’s experiments with dogs. Operant conditioning involves reinforcement or punishment,
stimulus generalization extends responses to similar stimuli, and observational learning involves
learning by observing others.
Question 3
, 2
In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which stage is characterized by the ability to think
abstractly and hypothetically?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Correct Answer: D. Formal operational
Rationale: The formal operational stage (adolescence to adulthood) in Piaget’s theory is marked
by abstract and hypothetical thinking, enabling problem-solving without concrete referents. The
sensorimotor stage involves sensory and motor actions, preoperational stage centers on symbolic
thought with egocentrism, and concrete operational stage involves logical thinking about
concrete objects.
Question 4
A psychologist is using the DSM-5 to diagnose a client with persistent sadness, anhedonia, and
sleep disturbances. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Bipolar disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Dysthymic disorder
Correct Answer: B. Major depressive disorder
Rationale: Major depressive disorder (MDD) in the DSM-5 is characterized by persistent
sadness, anhedonia (loss of interest), and symptoms like sleep disturbances for at least two
weeks. Bipolar disorder includes manic episodes, generalized anxiety disorder focuses on
excessive worry, and dysthymic disorder (persistent depressive disorder) involves chronic but
less severe symptoms.
Question 5
Which ethical principle emphasizes doing no harm to clients?
A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
Correct Answer: B. Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Nonmaleficence, a core ethical principle in the APA Ethics Code, obligates
psychologists to avoid harming clients. Beneficence involves promoting well-being, autonomy
respects client decision-making, and justice ensures fairness in treatment.
Question 6
A researcher finds a correlation coefficient of -0.75 between stress and job performance. This
indicates:
A. A weak positive relationship
, 3
B. A strong negative relationship
C. No relationship
D. A causal relationship
Correct Answer: B. A strong negative relationship
Rationale: A correlation coefficient of -0.75 indicates a strong negative relationship, meaning as
stress increases, job performance decreases. A weak positive relationship would be closer to 0,
no relationship would be near 0, and correlation does not imply causation.
Question 7
Which brain structure is primarily responsible for regulating basic survival functions like heart
rate and breathing?
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Amygdala
D. Hippocampus
Correct Answer: B. Medulla oblongata
Rationale: The medulla oblongata, located in the brainstem, regulates vital functions such as
heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the amygdala
processes emotions, and the hippocampus is involved in memory formation.
Question 8
In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), automatic thoughts are best described as:
A. Deliberate and conscious beliefs
B. Unconscious drives
C. Spontaneous and often distorted cognitions
D. Learned behavioral responses
Correct Answer: C. Spontaneous and often distorted cognitions
Rationale: Automatic thoughts in CBT are spontaneous, often negative or distorted cognitions
that influence emotions and behaviors. They are not deliberate, unconscious drives
(psychodynamic), or purely behavioral responses.
Question 9
A client from a collectivist culture values family input in therapy decisions. The psychologist
should:
A. Ignore family input to maintain autonomy
B. Incorporate family perspectives respectfully
C. Refuse to involve family members
D. Insist on individual decision-making
Correct Answer: B. Incorporate family perspectives respectfully
Rationale: Cultural competence requires respecting collectivist values, which prioritize family
and community input. Incorporating family perspectives aligns with APA guidelines for
, 4
culturally sensitive practice, while ignoring or refusing family involvement disregards the
client’s cultural context.
Question 10
Which attachment style is characterized by difficulty trusting others and avoiding close
relationships?
A. Secure
B. Anxious-preoccupied
C. Dismissive-avoidant
D. Fearful-avoidant
Correct Answer: C. Dismissive-avoidant
Rationale: Dismissive-avoidant attachment, per Ainsworth and Bowlby, involves discomfort
with closeness and a preference for independence, often due to distrust. Secure individuals form
healthy relationships, anxious-preoccupied seek excessive closeness, and fearful-avoidant fear
both intimacy and rejection.
Question 11
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is most likely to benefit from which
treatment?
A. Psychoanalysis
B. Exposure and response prevention
C. Client-centered therapy
D. Interpersonal therapy
Correct Answer: B. Exposure and response prevention
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP), a CBT technique, is the gold standard for
OCD, exposing clients to triggers while preventing compulsive responses. Psychoanalysis
explores unconscious conflicts, client-centered therapy focuses on empathy, and interpersonal
therapy addresses relationships, none of which are primary for OCD.
Question 12
Which statistical test is used to compare means between two independent groups?
A. ANOVA
B. Chi-square test
C. Independent t-test
D. Paired t-test
Correct Answer: C. Independent t-test
Rationale: The independent t-test compares means between two independent groups (e.g.,
treatment vs. control). ANOVA is for multiple groups, chi-square tests categorical data, and
paired t-tests compare means within the same group.
Question 13
