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HESI RN Exit Exam 2025 (V1–V3) | 100
Verified Questions & Answers with Detailed
Rationales | A+ Study Guide
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed digoxin. Which
finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Increased appetite
B. Bradycardia ✅
C. Hypertension
D. Diarrhea
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Rationale: Bradycardia is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include nausea,
vomiting, visual disturbances (e.g., halos), and confusion. Digoxin increases cardiac
contractility but can depress the sinoatrial node, slowing the heart rate. Close monitoring of
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apical pulse and serum digoxin levels is essential.
Q2. A client with chronic kidney disease reports fatigue and pallor. Which lab value supports
this finding?
A. Elevated creatinine
B. Low hemoglobin ✅
C. High potassium
D. Elevated BUN
Rationale: Low hemoglobin indicates anemia, a common complication of chronic kidney
disease due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. This leads to decreased red
blood cell formation, resulting in fatigue and pallor.
Q3. A nurse is reviewing a newly prescribed medication for a client. What is the priority
action?
A. Inform the family
B. Document the prescription
C. Educate the client ✅
D. Monitor for side effects
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Rationale: Educating the client ensures understanding and adherence. Without proper
education, the risk of noncompliance, side effects, or adverse reactions increases. This aligns
with client rights and safe nursing practice.
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Q4. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend for a client taking warfarin?
A. Kale
B. Broccoli
C. Spinach
D. Potatoes ✅
Rationale: Potatoes are low in vitamin K and safe to eat without affecting warfarin’s
anticoagulant effect. Foods high in vitamin K (like kale and spinach) can interfere with
warfarin’s effectiveness.
Q5. A client has a new tracheostomy. Which action by the nurse prevents accidental
decannulation?
A. Apply sterile gloves
B. Secure trach ties snugly ✅
C. Use a larger cannula
D. Keep suction equipment at bedside
Rationale: Securing trach ties prevents movement that could dislodge the tube. While having
suction equipment nearby is important, proper securement directly prevents decannulation.
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Q6. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which lab result is expected?
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A. Low serum sodium
B. Elevated urine specific gravity
C. High serum osmolality ✅
D. Decreased hematocrit
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus leads to massive water loss, increasing serum osmolality.
Urine is dilute, so urine specific gravity is low. Hemoconcentration may elevate hematocrit.
Q7. What is the priority intervention for a client having a seizure?
A. Restrain limbs
B. Insert oral airway
C. Protect the head ✅
D. Document seizure duration
Rationale: Protecting the head prevents injury during convulsions. Never insert anything in
the mouth or restrain movements. Documentation is important but not the priority during the
seizure.
Q8. Which task can a nurse delegate to a UAP?
Page | 1
HESI RN Exit Exam 2025 (V1–V3) | 100
Verified Questions & Answers with Detailed
Rationales | A+ Study Guide
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed digoxin. Which
finding indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Increased appetite
B. Bradycardia ✅
C. Hypertension
D. Diarrhea
, 2
Rationale: Bradycardia is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include nausea,
vomiting, visual disturbances (e.g., halos), and confusion. Digoxin increases cardiac
contractility but can depress the sinoatrial node, slowing the heart rate. Close monitoring of
Page | 2
apical pulse and serum digoxin levels is essential.
Q2. A client with chronic kidney disease reports fatigue and pallor. Which lab value supports
this finding?
A. Elevated creatinine
B. Low hemoglobin ✅
C. High potassium
D. Elevated BUN
Rationale: Low hemoglobin indicates anemia, a common complication of chronic kidney
disease due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. This leads to decreased red
blood cell formation, resulting in fatigue and pallor.
Q3. A nurse is reviewing a newly prescribed medication for a client. What is the priority
action?
A. Inform the family
B. Document the prescription
C. Educate the client ✅
D. Monitor for side effects
, 3
Rationale: Educating the client ensures understanding and adherence. Without proper
education, the risk of noncompliance, side effects, or adverse reactions increases. This aligns
with client rights and safe nursing practice.
Page | 3
Q4. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend for a client taking warfarin?
A. Kale
B. Broccoli
C. Spinach
D. Potatoes ✅
Rationale: Potatoes are low in vitamin K and safe to eat without affecting warfarin’s
anticoagulant effect. Foods high in vitamin K (like kale and spinach) can interfere with
warfarin’s effectiveness.
Q5. A client has a new tracheostomy. Which action by the nurse prevents accidental
decannulation?
A. Apply sterile gloves
B. Secure trach ties snugly ✅
C. Use a larger cannula
D. Keep suction equipment at bedside
Rationale: Securing trach ties prevents movement that could dislodge the tube. While having
suction equipment nearby is important, proper securement directly prevents decannulation.
, 4
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which lab result is expected?
Page | 4
A. Low serum sodium
B. Elevated urine specific gravity
C. High serum osmolality ✅
D. Decreased hematocrit
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus leads to massive water loss, increasing serum osmolality.
Urine is dilute, so urine specific gravity is low. Hemoconcentration may elevate hematocrit.
Q7. What is the priority intervention for a client having a seizure?
A. Restrain limbs
B. Insert oral airway
C. Protect the head ✅
D. Document seizure duration
Rationale: Protecting the head prevents injury during convulsions. Never insert anything in
the mouth or restrain movements. Documentation is important but not the priority during the
seizure.
Q8. Which task can a nurse delegate to a UAP?
