1
Test Bank: ATI Comprehensive PN Exit Exam
2025 – Versions 1, 2 & 3 + Bonus Practice Test |
Actual Questions, 100% Verified Answers &
Rationales | Guaranteed Pass
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which food should the
nurse instruct the client to limit?
A. Broccoli
B. Chicken breast
C. Rice
D. Apples
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Broccoli is high in vitamin K, which can antagonize the anticoagulant effects
of warfarin. Chicken breast, rice, and apples have minimal vitamin K and are safe.
2. A client with heart failure reports a 4-pound weight gain in 3 days. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Administer an extra dose of diuretic
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Encourage increased fluid intake
D. Document the finding and continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 4-pound weight gain in 3 days indicates fluid retention, a potential
exacerbation of heart failure. Notifying the provider is the priority to adjust treatment.
Administering medication without an order, increasing fluids, or only monitoring could
worsen the condition.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client with diabetes. At what time
should this medication typically be given?
A. Before breakfast
B. At bedtime
C. With lunch
D. Every 6 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is typically administered at bedtime to
provide steady glucose control throughout the day and night. It is not given with meals or
on a frequent schedule.
4. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which
medication should the nurse administer first?
A. Prednisone
, 2
B. Albuterol
C. Montelukast
D. Ipratropium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, is the first-line treatment for acute
asthma exacerbation to relieve bronchospasm. Other medications are used for long-term
control or as adjuncts.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about colostomy care. Which statement indicates the client
understands the teaching?
A. “I’ll change the pouch every 2 days.”
B. “I’ll empty the pouch when it’s one-third to one-half full.”
C. “I’ll use soap to clean the stoma.”
D. “I’ll cut the wafer to fit loosely around the stoma.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Emptying the pouch when one-third to one-half full prevents leakage and skin
irritation. Pouch changes vary (every 3–7 days), soap can irritate the stoma, and the wafer
should fit snugly.
6. A client with a suspected stroke is admitted. Which assessment tool should the nurse use
to evaluate neurological status?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
B. NIH Stroke Scale
C. Braden Scale
D. Morse Fall Scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The NIH Stroke Scale is specific for assessing stroke severity and guiding
treatment. The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates consciousness, while Braden and Morse
assess skin integrity and fall risk, respectively.
7. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which finding indicates a
potential complication?
A. Heart rate 80/min
B. Urine output 30 mL/hr
C. Pain at the IV site
D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pain at the IV site may indicate phlebitis or infiltration, complications of
potassium chloride, which is irritating to veins. Other findings are within normal limits.
8. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Carrots
B. Bananas
C. Strawberries
D. Lettuce
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which can worsen hyperkalemia in kidney
disease. Carrots, strawberries, and lettuce are lower in potassium and generally safe.
, 3
9. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypocalcemia. Which sign should the nurse
check for?
A. Trousseau’s sign
B. Kernig’s sign
C. Babinski’s sign
D. Homans’ sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm with blood pressure cuff inflation) is specific
for hypocalcemia. Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs are related to meningitis, and
Homans’ sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis.
10. A client with a new tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Suction the airway
B. Check for tube obstruction
C. Administer oxygen
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking for tube obstruction is the priority in a new tracheostomy, as it may
cause distress. Suctioning, oxygen, or notification may follow based on findings.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action ensures proper tube
placement?
A. Checking the pH of aspirate
B. Observing for coughing during insertion
C. Measuring the tube length
D. Auscultating over the chest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Checking the pH of aspirate (pH <4 for gastric placement) is the most reliable
method to confirm nasogastric tube placement. Other methods are less definitive.
12. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Phenytoin levels
C. Blood glucose
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels must be monitored to
ensure efficacy and prevent toxicity. Other values are not primarily affected.
13. A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which
recommendation is most effective?
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Limit alcohol consumption
C. Avoid all physical activity
D. Smoke in moderation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting alcohol reduces blood pressure and cardiovascular risk. Sodium
should be restricted, physical activity encouraged, and smoking avoided entirely.
, 4
14. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus asks about foot care. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. Soak feet in hot water daily
B. Inspect feet daily for cuts or redness
C. Wear tight-fitting shoes
D. Apply lotion between the toes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily foot inspection prevents complications like infections in diabetes. Hot
water, tight shoes, and lotion between toes increase risk for injury or infection.
15. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction. Which medication is most likely
prescribed to prevent platelet aggregation?
A. Lisinopril
B. Aspirin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of further thrombus
formation. Other medications address blood pressure, fluid, or heart rate but not platelets
directly.
16. A client with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The
SpO2 is 89%. What should the nurse do next?
A. Increase oxygen to 4 L/min
B. Continue monitoring
C. Notify the provider
D. Switch to a non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88–92% is acceptable in COPD to avoid suppressing the hypoxic
drive. Continued monitoring is appropriate unless symptoms worsen.
17. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which instruction is most important?
A. Eat a high-fiber meal the night before
B. Drink only clear liquids for 24 hours prior
C. Avoid drinking water after midnight
D. Take antibiotics before the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clear liquids for 24 hours ensure a clean colon for visualization. High-fiber
meals, water restriction, or antibiotics are not standard.
18. A client with a new diagnosis of gout is prescribed allopurinol. What should the nurse
teach the client about this medication?
A. Take it with meals to prevent nausea
B. Expect immediate pain relief
C. Avoid drinking water while on this medication
D. Stop the medication if a rash develops
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rash may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, requiring
discontinuation and provider notification. It is not taken with meals, does not provide
immediate relief, and hydration is encouraged.
Test Bank: ATI Comprehensive PN Exit Exam
2025 – Versions 1, 2 & 3 + Bonus Practice Test |
Actual Questions, 100% Verified Answers &
Rationales | Guaranteed Pass
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which food should the
nurse instruct the client to limit?
A. Broccoli
B. Chicken breast
C. Rice
D. Apples
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Broccoli is high in vitamin K, which can antagonize the anticoagulant effects
of warfarin. Chicken breast, rice, and apples have minimal vitamin K and are safe.
2. A client with heart failure reports a 4-pound weight gain in 3 days. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Administer an extra dose of diuretic
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Encourage increased fluid intake
D. Document the finding and continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 4-pound weight gain in 3 days indicates fluid retention, a potential
exacerbation of heart failure. Notifying the provider is the priority to adjust treatment.
Administering medication without an order, increasing fluids, or only monitoring could
worsen the condition.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client with diabetes. At what time
should this medication typically be given?
A. Before breakfast
B. At bedtime
C. With lunch
D. Every 6 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, is typically administered at bedtime to
provide steady glucose control throughout the day and night. It is not given with meals or
on a frequent schedule.
4. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which
medication should the nurse administer first?
A. Prednisone
, 2
B. Albuterol
C. Montelukast
D. Ipratropium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, is the first-line treatment for acute
asthma exacerbation to relieve bronchospasm. Other medications are used for long-term
control or as adjuncts.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about colostomy care. Which statement indicates the client
understands the teaching?
A. “I’ll change the pouch every 2 days.”
B. “I’ll empty the pouch when it’s one-third to one-half full.”
C. “I’ll use soap to clean the stoma.”
D. “I’ll cut the wafer to fit loosely around the stoma.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Emptying the pouch when one-third to one-half full prevents leakage and skin
irritation. Pouch changes vary (every 3–7 days), soap can irritate the stoma, and the wafer
should fit snugly.
6. A client with a suspected stroke is admitted. Which assessment tool should the nurse use
to evaluate neurological status?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
B. NIH Stroke Scale
C. Braden Scale
D. Morse Fall Scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The NIH Stroke Scale is specific for assessing stroke severity and guiding
treatment. The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates consciousness, while Braden and Morse
assess skin integrity and fall risk, respectively.
7. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which finding indicates a
potential complication?
A. Heart rate 80/min
B. Urine output 30 mL/hr
C. Pain at the IV site
D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pain at the IV site may indicate phlebitis or infiltration, complications of
potassium chloride, which is irritating to veins. Other findings are within normal limits.
8. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Carrots
B. Bananas
C. Strawberries
D. Lettuce
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which can worsen hyperkalemia in kidney
disease. Carrots, strawberries, and lettuce are lower in potassium and generally safe.
, 3
9. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypocalcemia. Which sign should the nurse
check for?
A. Trousseau’s sign
B. Kernig’s sign
C. Babinski’s sign
D. Homans’ sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm with blood pressure cuff inflation) is specific
for hypocalcemia. Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs are related to meningitis, and
Homans’ sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis.
10. A client with a new tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Suction the airway
B. Check for tube obstruction
C. Administer oxygen
D. Notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking for tube obstruction is the priority in a new tracheostomy, as it may
cause distress. Suctioning, oxygen, or notification may follow based on findings.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action ensures proper tube
placement?
A. Checking the pH of aspirate
B. Observing for coughing during insertion
C. Measuring the tube length
D. Auscultating over the chest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Checking the pH of aspirate (pH <4 for gastric placement) is the most reliable
method to confirm nasogastric tube placement. Other methods are less definitive.
12. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Phenytoin levels
C. Blood glucose
D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels must be monitored to
ensure efficacy and prevent toxicity. Other values are not primarily affected.
13. A nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which
recommendation is most effective?
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Limit alcohol consumption
C. Avoid all physical activity
D. Smoke in moderation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting alcohol reduces blood pressure and cardiovascular risk. Sodium
should be restricted, physical activity encouraged, and smoking avoided entirely.
, 4
14. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus asks about foot care. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. Soak feet in hot water daily
B. Inspect feet daily for cuts or redness
C. Wear tight-fitting shoes
D. Apply lotion between the toes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily foot inspection prevents complications like infections in diabetes. Hot
water, tight shoes, and lotion between toes increase risk for injury or infection.
15. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction. Which medication is most likely
prescribed to prevent platelet aggregation?
A. Lisinopril
B. Aspirin
C. Furosemide
D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of further thrombus
formation. Other medications address blood pressure, fluid, or heart rate but not platelets
directly.
16. A client with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The
SpO2 is 89%. What should the nurse do next?
A. Increase oxygen to 4 L/min
B. Continue monitoring
C. Notify the provider
D. Switch to a non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An SpO2 of 88–92% is acceptable in COPD to avoid suppressing the hypoxic
drive. Continued monitoring is appropriate unless symptoms worsen.
17. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which instruction is most important?
A. Eat a high-fiber meal the night before
B. Drink only clear liquids for 24 hours prior
C. Avoid drinking water after midnight
D. Take antibiotics before the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clear liquids for 24 hours ensure a clean colon for visualization. High-fiber
meals, water restriction, or antibiotics are not standard.
18. A client with a new diagnosis of gout is prescribed allopurinol. What should the nurse
teach the client about this medication?
A. Take it with meals to prevent nausea
B. Expect immediate pain relief
C. Avoid drinking water while on this medication
D. Stop the medication if a rash develops
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rash may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, requiring
discontinuation and provider notification. It is not taken with meals, does not provide
immediate relief, and hydration is encouraged.
