1
Page | 1
DiPiro’s Pharmacotherapy 12th Edition |
UPDATED 2025–2026 | 100 Verified
Questions + Rationales | Complete Test Bank |
All 167 Chapters Covered
1. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is most appropriate for a patient with
hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
, 2
✔ C. Doxazosin
D. Metoprolol
Page | 2 Rationale:
Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker that treats both hypertension and BPH by relaxing smooth
muscle in the bladder neck and prostate. It improves urinary flow and reduces blood pressure.
ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers do not treat BPH symptoms. Hence, doxazosin is ideal for
dual benefit.
2. In heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), which medication class
improves both symptoms and survival?
A. Digoxin
B. Loop diuretics
C. Nitrates
✔ D. ACE inhibitors
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors reduce mortality and improve symptoms in HFrEF by lowering afterload and
inhibiting ventricular remodeling. Diuretics and digoxin only provide symptom relief, not
survival benefits. ACE inhibitors are the gold standard for foundational HFrEF management.
3. Which of the following is the preferred first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in an
overweight patient without contraindications?
A. Sulfonylurea
, 3
B. DPP-4 inhibitor
✔ C. Metformin
D. Insulin
Page | 3
Rationale:
Metformin is the first-line drug for type 2 diabetes, especially in overweight patients. It
improves insulin sensitivity and doesn’t cause hypoglycemia or weight gain. Other options
are either less effective or have more adverse effects.
4. Which antibiotic is the most appropriate empiric treatment for community-acquired
pneumonia in an otherwise healthy outpatient adult?
A. Ceftriaxone
✔ B. Azithromycin
C. Linezolid
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
Rationale:
Azithromycin covers both typical and atypical pathogens seen in outpatient CAP. It's oral,
convenient, and effective. Broad-spectrum or hospital-focused antibiotics like piperacillin-
tazobactam are unnecessary in this population.
5. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause gingival hyperplasia?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
, 4
✔ C. Phenytoin
D. Levothyroxine
Page | 4 Rationale:
Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia by stimulating fibroblast proliferation. Good oral
hygiene reduces the risk. It's a distinctive adverse effect not shared by the other drugs listed.
6. A 68-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4 should
be prescribed which of the following?
A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Warfarin (if INR stable)
✔ D. Apixaban
Rationale:
Apixaban, a DOAC, is preferred for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation with high
CHA₂DS₂-VASc scores. It’s effective, convenient, and safer than warfarin, especially
regarding bleeding risk.
7. Which of the following drugs requires therapeutic drug monitoring due to a narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Amoxicillin
✔ B. Vancomycin
Page | 1
DiPiro’s Pharmacotherapy 12th Edition |
UPDATED 2025–2026 | 100 Verified
Questions + Rationales | Complete Test Bank |
All 167 Chapters Covered
1. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is most appropriate for a patient with
hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
, 2
✔ C. Doxazosin
D. Metoprolol
Page | 2 Rationale:
Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker that treats both hypertension and BPH by relaxing smooth
muscle in the bladder neck and prostate. It improves urinary flow and reduces blood pressure.
ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers do not treat BPH symptoms. Hence, doxazosin is ideal for
dual benefit.
2. In heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), which medication class
improves both symptoms and survival?
A. Digoxin
B. Loop diuretics
C. Nitrates
✔ D. ACE inhibitors
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors reduce mortality and improve symptoms in HFrEF by lowering afterload and
inhibiting ventricular remodeling. Diuretics and digoxin only provide symptom relief, not
survival benefits. ACE inhibitors are the gold standard for foundational HFrEF management.
3. Which of the following is the preferred first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in an
overweight patient without contraindications?
A. Sulfonylurea
, 3
B. DPP-4 inhibitor
✔ C. Metformin
D. Insulin
Page | 3
Rationale:
Metformin is the first-line drug for type 2 diabetes, especially in overweight patients. It
improves insulin sensitivity and doesn’t cause hypoglycemia or weight gain. Other options
are either less effective or have more adverse effects.
4. Which antibiotic is the most appropriate empiric treatment for community-acquired
pneumonia in an otherwise healthy outpatient adult?
A. Ceftriaxone
✔ B. Azithromycin
C. Linezolid
D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
Rationale:
Azithromycin covers both typical and atypical pathogens seen in outpatient CAP. It's oral,
convenient, and effective. Broad-spectrum or hospital-focused antibiotics like piperacillin-
tazobactam are unnecessary in this population.
5. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause gingival hyperplasia?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
, 4
✔ C. Phenytoin
D. Levothyroxine
Page | 4 Rationale:
Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia by stimulating fibroblast proliferation. Good oral
hygiene reduces the risk. It's a distinctive adverse effect not shared by the other drugs listed.
6. A 68-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4 should
be prescribed which of the following?
A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Warfarin (if INR stable)
✔ D. Apixaban
Rationale:
Apixaban, a DOAC, is preferred for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation with high
CHA₂DS₂-VASc scores. It’s effective, convenient, and safer than warfarin, especially
regarding bleeding risk.
7. Which of the following drugs requires therapeutic drug monitoring due to a narrow
therapeutic index?
A. Amoxicillin
✔ B. Vancomycin
