WGU D345 NURS 6438 Psychopharmacology OA Final Exam 2025 – Verified Questions and Answers | Expert Solutions | Graded A+

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WGU D345 NURS 6438
Psychopharmacology OA Final Exam
2025 – Verified Questions and Answers
| Expert Solutions | Graded A+

Questions 1–200
1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors (SSRIs) in the treatment of depression?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Serotonin
D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SSRIs, such as fluoxetine and sertraline, selectively inhibit the reuptake of
serotonin, increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft to improve mood. Dopamine
(A), norepinephrine (B), and GABA (D) are not primarily targeted by SSRIs. WGU D345
emphasizes neurotransmitter specificity in psychopharmacology.
2. A client is prescribed fluoxetine for major depressive disorder. When should the
nurse advise the client to expect therapeutic effects?
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 1–2 days
C. Within 2–4 weeks
D. Within 6 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SSRIs like fluoxetine require 2–4 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects as
serotonin levels stabilize in the brain. Immediate effects (A, B) are not expected, and 6
months (D) is excessive for initial response. WGU D345 tests understanding of
antidepressant onset.
3. A client taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) should avoid which food to
prevent a hypertensive crisis?
A. Fresh fruits
B. Aged cheese
C. White bread
D. Grilled chicken
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MAOIs, such as phenelzine, inhibit tyramine metabolism, and aged cheese
contains high tyramine levels, risking a hypertensive crisis. Fresh fruits (A), white bread

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(C), and grilled chicken (D) are generally safe. WGU D345 stresses dietary restrictions
with MAOIs.
4. Which symptom is a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. Weight loss
B. Dry mouth
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TCAs, like amitriptyline, have anticholinergic effects, causing dry mouth.
Weight gain (not loss, A), is common, hypoglycemia (C) is unrelated, and appetite
changes (D) vary. WGU D345 focuses on TCA side effect profiles.
5. A client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor regularly?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum lithium levels
C. Blood glucose
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range (0.6–1.2 mEq/L), requiring regular
serum level monitoring to prevent toxicity. Potassium (A), glucose (C), and A1c (D) are
not directly affected. WGU D345 tests lithium monitoring protocols.
6. A nurse is educating a client about benzodiazepine use for anxiety. Which
instruction is essential?
A. Take the medication with grapefruit juice
B. Avoid abrupt discontinuation
C. Expect immediate mood elevation
D. Increase the dose if anxiety persists
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abrupt discontinuation of benzodiazepines, like lorazepam, risks withdrawal
symptoms or seizures. Grapefruit juice (A) interacts with other drugs, mood elevation (C)
is not expected, and dose changes (D) require medical guidance. WGU D345 emphasizes
benzodiazepine safety.
7. Which medication is most likely to cause serotonin syndrome when combined with
an SSRI?
A. Metoprolol
B. Tramadol
C. Lisinopril
D. Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tramadol increases serotonin levels, risking serotonin syndrome when
combined with SSRIs. Metoprolol (A), lisinopril (C), and atorvastatin (D) do not
significantly affect serotonin. WGU D345 tests drug interaction risks.
8. A client taking haloperidol develops muscle rigidity and fever. What should the
nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

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C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Akathisia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NMS, a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics like haloperidol, presents
with muscle rigidity, fever, and autonomic instability. Serotonin syndrome (A) involves
SSRIs, tardive dyskinesia (C) causes involuntary movements, and akathisia (D) involves
restlessness. WGU D345 tests antipsychotic complications.
9. Which instruction should the nurse provide to a client prescribed aripiprazole for
schizophrenia?
A. Avoid all dairy products
B. Monitor for weight gain
C. Expect immediate symptom relief
D. Take the medication at bedtime only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aripiprazole, an atypical antipsychotic, is associated with weight gain,
requiring monitoring. Dairy (A) is unrelated, symptom relief (C) takes weeks, and timing
(D) varies. WGU D345 emphasizes atypical antipsychotic side effects.
10. A client is prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder. Which adverse effect
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valproic acid can cause liver damage, requiring regular liver function tests.
Hypothyroidism (A) is more common with lithium, and hyperglycemia (C) and
hypertension (D) are less frequent. WGU D345 tests mood stabilizer monitoring.
11. Which medication class is considered first-line for generalized anxiety disorder
(GAD)?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs
C. MAOIs
D. TCAs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SSRIs, such as sertraline, are first-line for GAD due to their efficacy and
safety. Benzodiazepines (A) are for short-term use, MAOIs (C) and TCAs (D) are less
preferred due to side effects. WGU D345 prioritizes evidence-based treatment guidelines.
12. A client taking clozapine reports a sore throat and fever. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Administer an antipyretic
B. Assess for agranulocytosis
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Notify the pharmacist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a life-threatening drop in white blood