, TESTBANK For Diagnosis and Treatment of
Mental Disorders Across the Lifespan, Second
Edition by Stephanie M. Woo
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, Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 1
Chapter 1: Intake and Interviewing
Test Bank Questions
1. All of the following should be collected prior to the intake interview except:
a. Informed consent forms
b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) forms
c. Mental Status Examination
d. Releases of information
2. Which of the following is not necessary for the development of cultural competence?
a. Within-group membership
b. A self-awareness of personal assumptions, biases, and values
c. Understanding an individual client’s worldview
d. Knowledge of culturally appropriate and specific interventions
3. Rapport between a clinician and a client involves all of the following except:
a. A relationship founded on respect
b. A relationship founded on a mutual “liking”
c. A relationship founded on safety
d. A relationship founded on mutual confidence
4. The violence triad identifies increased risk of assaultive behavior and involves which of
the following client factors?
a. Older males with a history of Schizophrenia and neurocognitive deficits
b. Diagnoses of Schizophrenia, Antisocial Personality Disorder, and ADHD
c. Older males with a history of Substance Use Disorder and Depression
d. A history of violence, personal victimization, or a Substance Use Disorder
5. A mental status exam addresses a client’s:
a. Goals for therapy
b. Psychosocial history
c. Diagnosis
d. Cognitive functioning
6. Which of the following statement about structured interviews is false?
a. Their use increases the likelihood of clinician bias.
b. They may be more difficult to use with highly emotional clients.
, Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 2
c. Their use can make it more difficult to establish rapport.
d. They need to be updated with classification system (i.e., the DSM) revisions.
7. When assessing clinical symptoms, FIDO relates to:
a. Family history, Incidence, Diagnostic criteria, and Occurrence of symptoms
b. Frequency, Intensity, Duration, and Onset of symptoms
c. Frequency, Impairment, Distress, and Occurrence of symptoms
d. Family predisposition, Incidence, Development, and Onset of symptoms
8. Which of the following do not impact prognosis?
a. Natural course of the disorder
b. Highest level of prior functioning
c. Gender and ethnicity
d. Availability of effective treatment
9. An evaluation that standardizes the language used to question clients, the sequence in
which questions are presented, and the quantification of the client's responses is
broadly called a:
a. Diagnostic technique
b. Structured interview
c. Mental status exam
d. Client analysis
10. The mnemonic CLIENTS used to assess clinical problems does not include:
a. Cause: what does the client think caused the problem?
b. Impairment: what areas have been impacted?
c. Noticed: who noticed?
d. Stressor: what stressors were involved?
,Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 3
, Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 4
Answer Key Chapter 1
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. d
6. a
7. b
8. c
9. b
10. d
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 2 1
Chapter 2: Essentials of Diagnosis
Test Bank Questions
1. What is Kraepelin’s role in the history of diagnostic classification?
a. First to propose that mental illness was a disease of the brain
b. Proposed a classification system based on possession by evil spirits
c. Used Freudian concepts to develop the “neurotic” classification
d. First to propose a psychiatric classification system based on systematic
observation of clinical syndromes
2. What best describes the relationship between the ICD and the DSM systems of
diagnostic classification?
a. The ICD system is published by the World Health Organization and DSM is
published by the American Psychiatric Association.
b. The ICD is descriptive and the DSM is etiological.
c. The DSM hopes to promote interrater reliability whereas the ICD is based on
clinical judgment.
d. The DSM has a theoretical basis whereas the ICD is purely empirical.
3. For each diagnostic category, which DSM section is the most useful for making a
diagnosis?
a. Prevalence
b. Associated Features
c. Diagnostic Features
d. Risk and Prognostic Factors
4. Which outcome of acculturation places an individual at higher risk for mental health
problems?
a. Rejection of the dominant culture and a relinquishing of one’s original culture
b. Assimilation to the dominant culture and a relinquishing of one’s original culture
c. Adoption of some aspects of the dominant culture and retention of some
aspects of the original culture
d. Separation from the dominant culture and retention of one’s original culture
5. Which is not an accepted strategy for resolving diagnostic uncertainty?
a. Gather more information
b. Refuse to assign a diagnosis
c. Request psychological assessment
d. Get permission to contact family members
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 2 2
6. A diagnosis should be listed with the words “rule out” when:
a. You have excluded it
b. You think it might fit but you need to gather more data
c. The patient fulfills the criteria but the diagnosis carries a stigma
d. It is rare in the clinical setting where you are working
7. Which of the following is not an advantage of the DSM?
a. A classification communication system
b. High reliability and comparable to ICD
c. Descriptive diagnostic criteria
d. High validity not reliant on clinical judgment
8. The DSM describes disorders as clusters of __________ and __________ that are
organized around essential features and form specific constellations.
a. Stressors; triggers
b. Impairments; distress
c. Signs; symptoms
d. Thoughts; behaviors
9. The single most common diagnostic error in clinical practice involves failing to take
_____________________ into consideration.
a. Substance-related etiology
b. General medical conditions
c. Comorbid diagnoses
d. Pre-existing mental disorders
10. Premorbid functioning refers to:
a. A client’s overall level of depression before hospitalization
b. A client’s overall level of insight before intake
c. A client’s overall level of motor functioning before death
d. A client’s overall level of functioning before the onset of a disorder
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 2 3
Answer Key Chapter 2
1. d
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. b
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. d
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 3 1
Chapter 3 Fundamentals of Treatment
Test Bank Questions
1. Complete this sentence with the best answer: Building and maintaining a therapeutic
alliance is ______________.
a. Important only in Carl Rogers’s approach
b. Unrelated to expressions of empathy
c. Only important with fragile clients
d. Essential to successful treatment
2. The term countertransference refers to:
a. Reactions of the therapist to the client
b. Methods used by a therapist to prevent transference from occurring
c. Reactions of the client to the therapist’s efforts to counter his resistance
d. None of the above
3. In working with older adults, which is not an issue to be aware of?
a. Negative stereotypes and ageism can affect well-being.
b. Older adults can benefit from psychodynamic therapy.
c. Higher dropout rates than young adults
d. Sexual activity can still be important.
4. When dealing with an individual in crisis:
a. The clinician must adopt an active approach.
b. Building rapport is not necessary because it slows down the process.
c. Be careful not to undermine the client’s self-esteem by offering coping
strategies.
d. Avoid talking about the event that led to the crisis.
5. Examples of protective factors that reduce suicide risk include all except:
a. Social support
b. Employment
c. Black-and-white thinking
d. Religious beliefs
6. The standard for reporting abuse to a governmental agency is:
a. Verification of the truth of the allegation
b. Reasonable suspicion
Mental Disorders Across the Lifespan, Second
Edition by Stephanie M. Woo
Hello all ,
We have all what you need with best price
Our email :
Our website :
testbanks-store.com
, Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 1
Chapter 1: Intake and Interviewing
Test Bank Questions
1. All of the following should be collected prior to the intake interview except:
a. Informed consent forms
b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) forms
c. Mental Status Examination
d. Releases of information
2. Which of the following is not necessary for the development of cultural competence?
a. Within-group membership
b. A self-awareness of personal assumptions, biases, and values
c. Understanding an individual client’s worldview
d. Knowledge of culturally appropriate and specific interventions
3. Rapport between a clinician and a client involves all of the following except:
a. A relationship founded on respect
b. A relationship founded on a mutual “liking”
c. A relationship founded on safety
d. A relationship founded on mutual confidence
4. The violence triad identifies increased risk of assaultive behavior and involves which of
the following client factors?
a. Older males with a history of Schizophrenia and neurocognitive deficits
b. Diagnoses of Schizophrenia, Antisocial Personality Disorder, and ADHD
c. Older males with a history of Substance Use Disorder and Depression
d. A history of violence, personal victimization, or a Substance Use Disorder
5. A mental status exam addresses a client’s:
a. Goals for therapy
b. Psychosocial history
c. Diagnosis
d. Cognitive functioning
6. Which of the following statement about structured interviews is false?
a. Their use increases the likelihood of clinician bias.
b. They may be more difficult to use with highly emotional clients.
, Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 2
c. Their use can make it more difficult to establish rapport.
d. They need to be updated with classification system (i.e., the DSM) revisions.
7. When assessing clinical symptoms, FIDO relates to:
a. Family history, Incidence, Diagnostic criteria, and Occurrence of symptoms
b. Frequency, Intensity, Duration, and Onset of symptoms
c. Frequency, Impairment, Distress, and Occurrence of symptoms
d. Family predisposition, Incidence, Development, and Onset of symptoms
8. Which of the following do not impact prognosis?
a. Natural course of the disorder
b. Highest level of prior functioning
c. Gender and ethnicity
d. Availability of effective treatment
9. An evaluation that standardizes the language used to question clients, the sequence in
which questions are presented, and the quantification of the client's responses is
broadly called a:
a. Diagnostic technique
b. Structured interview
c. Mental status exam
d. Client analysis
10. The mnemonic CLIENTS used to assess clinical problems does not include:
a. Cause: what does the client think caused the problem?
b. Impairment: what areas have been impacted?
c. Noticed: who noticed?
d. Stressor: what stressors were involved?
,Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 3
, Woo & Keatinge Test Bank Items Chapter 1 4
Answer Key Chapter 1
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. d
6. a
7. b
8. c
9. b
10. d
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 2 1
Chapter 2: Essentials of Diagnosis
Test Bank Questions
1. What is Kraepelin’s role in the history of diagnostic classification?
a. First to propose that mental illness was a disease of the brain
b. Proposed a classification system based on possession by evil spirits
c. Used Freudian concepts to develop the “neurotic” classification
d. First to propose a psychiatric classification system based on systematic
observation of clinical syndromes
2. What best describes the relationship between the ICD and the DSM systems of
diagnostic classification?
a. The ICD system is published by the World Health Organization and DSM is
published by the American Psychiatric Association.
b. The ICD is descriptive and the DSM is etiological.
c. The DSM hopes to promote interrater reliability whereas the ICD is based on
clinical judgment.
d. The DSM has a theoretical basis whereas the ICD is purely empirical.
3. For each diagnostic category, which DSM section is the most useful for making a
diagnosis?
a. Prevalence
b. Associated Features
c. Diagnostic Features
d. Risk and Prognostic Factors
4. Which outcome of acculturation places an individual at higher risk for mental health
problems?
a. Rejection of the dominant culture and a relinquishing of one’s original culture
b. Assimilation to the dominant culture and a relinquishing of one’s original culture
c. Adoption of some aspects of the dominant culture and retention of some
aspects of the original culture
d. Separation from the dominant culture and retention of one’s original culture
5. Which is not an accepted strategy for resolving diagnostic uncertainty?
a. Gather more information
b. Refuse to assign a diagnosis
c. Request psychological assessment
d. Get permission to contact family members
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 2 2
6. A diagnosis should be listed with the words “rule out” when:
a. You have excluded it
b. You think it might fit but you need to gather more data
c. The patient fulfills the criteria but the diagnosis carries a stigma
d. It is rare in the clinical setting where you are working
7. Which of the following is not an advantage of the DSM?
a. A classification communication system
b. High reliability and comparable to ICD
c. Descriptive diagnostic criteria
d. High validity not reliant on clinical judgment
8. The DSM describes disorders as clusters of __________ and __________ that are
organized around essential features and form specific constellations.
a. Stressors; triggers
b. Impairments; distress
c. Signs; symptoms
d. Thoughts; behaviors
9. The single most common diagnostic error in clinical practice involves failing to take
_____________________ into consideration.
a. Substance-related etiology
b. General medical conditions
c. Comorbid diagnoses
d. Pre-existing mental disorders
10. Premorbid functioning refers to:
a. A client’s overall level of depression before hospitalization
b. A client’s overall level of insight before intake
c. A client’s overall level of motor functioning before death
d. A client’s overall level of functioning before the onset of a disorder
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 2 3
Answer Key Chapter 2
1. d
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. b
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. d
, Woo & Keatinge - Test Bank Items Chapter 3 1
Chapter 3 Fundamentals of Treatment
Test Bank Questions
1. Complete this sentence with the best answer: Building and maintaining a therapeutic
alliance is ______________.
a. Important only in Carl Rogers’s approach
b. Unrelated to expressions of empathy
c. Only important with fragile clients
d. Essential to successful treatment
2. The term countertransference refers to:
a. Reactions of the therapist to the client
b. Methods used by a therapist to prevent transference from occurring
c. Reactions of the client to the therapist’s efforts to counter his resistance
d. None of the above
3. In working with older adults, which is not an issue to be aware of?
a. Negative stereotypes and ageism can affect well-being.
b. Older adults can benefit from psychodynamic therapy.
c. Higher dropout rates than young adults
d. Sexual activity can still be important.
4. When dealing with an individual in crisis:
a. The clinician must adopt an active approach.
b. Building rapport is not necessary because it slows down the process.
c. Be careful not to undermine the client’s self-esteem by offering coping
strategies.
d. Avoid talking about the event that led to the crisis.
5. Examples of protective factors that reduce suicide risk include all except:
a. Social support
b. Employment
c. Black-and-white thinking
d. Religious beliefs
6. The standard for reporting abuse to a governmental agency is:
a. Verification of the truth of the allegation
b. Reasonable suspicion
