,TESTBANK for Forensic Psychology Crime,
Justice, Law, Interventions, 3rd Edition by
Graham M. Davies
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,Chapter 1 – Psychological Approaches to Understanding Crime
1. At which stage of Gibbs’ (2003) theory of “sociomoral reasoning” can an individual be
described as having reached mature moral reasoning?
*Stage 3
2. According to Gibbs (2003, 2010, 2014), what is the main offence-supporting distortion?
A. Hostile attributional bias
*B. Egocentric bias
C. Minimising the consequences of antisocial behaviour
D. Blaming others for one’s own antisocial behaviour
3. In Crick and Dodge’s (1994) six-stage model of social information-processing, individuals can
simultaneously perform all six different steps, thus allowing for feedback between processes.
*A. True
B. False
4. Cognitive shortcuts help to process information quickly at stage <1> of Crick and Dodge’s
(1994) model of social information-processing
<1> two
5. Which areas of the brain have been shown by research to have an association with violent
behaviour?
*The frontal and temporal lobes
6. According to Malamuth, Heavey, and Linz’s (1993) interaction model, sexual aggression is
the result of an interaction between the <1> path and the <2> path.
<1> hostile masculinity
<2> sexual promiscuity
7. Who developed the Integrated Theory of Sexual Offending?
A. Malamuth et al. (1993)
B. Finkelhor (1984)
*C. Ward and Beech (2006)
D. Hall and Hirschmann (1992)
8. Neurological disorders show a strong association with arson.
, A. True
*B. False
9. Which of these is one of the proposed explanations for the relationship between schizophrenia
and offending?
A. Schizophrenia causes offending
B. Schizophrenia is a consequence of offending
C. Schizophrenia and offending are merely correlated, so there is no causal relationship
between the two
*D. All of the above
10. Which DSM-IV category of personality disorder is the most associated with offending
behaviour?
A. Cluster A (odd-eccentric)
*B. Cluster B (dramatic-emotional-erratic)
C. Cluster C (anxious-fearful)
11. “Psychopathic disorder” is a clinical diagnosis.
A. True
*B. False
12. In terms of characteristics that appear to define most psychopaths, highlight the odd one out
from the list below:
A. A lack of guilt/remorse
B. Impulsiveness
C. Irresponsibility
D. Pathological lying
*E. Autism
,Chapter 2 – Developmental and Psychological Theories of Offending
1. The four dimensions of Lahey and Waldman’s (2005) developmental propensity theory – (i)
low cognitive ability; ii) prosociality; iii) daring; iv) negative emotionality – are said to have a
genetic basis.
*A. True
B. False
2. The “maturity gap” is associated with which component of Moffitt’s (1993) developmental
taxonomy?
A. The life-course-persistent theory
*B. The adolescence-limited theory
3. According to Thornberry and Krohn’s (2005) interactional theory, at what age range are
neuropsychological deficits proposed to be the most important in explaining offending
behaviour?
*A. Birth to 6 years of age
B. 6 to 12 years of age
C. 12 to 18 years of age
D. 18 to 25 years of age
4. Thornberry and Krohn (2001) proposed that changing social influences, protective factors
such as high intelligence, and intervention programmes can cause <1>
<1> desistance
5. Which developmental theory focuses explicitly on why people do not offend, rather than on
why they do offend?
A. Developmental propensity theory (Lahey & Waldman, 2005)
B. The developmental taxonomy of adolescence-limited versus life-course-persistent
offenders (Moffitt, 1993)
C. Interactional theory (Thornberry & Krohn, 2005)
* D. Age-graded informal social control theory (Sampson & Laub, 2005)
6. <1> theory hypothesises that broken homes have a significant impact on offending behaviour.
<1> Attachment
7. Classical (automatic) conditioning is a key component of Eysenck’s personality theory.
*A. True
B. False
,8. According to research on the relationship between child-rearing methods and offending, which
factor is the strongest and most replicable predictor of offending?
*A. Parental supervision
B. Discipline or parental reinforcement
C. The warmth/coldness of emotional relationships
D. Parental involvement with children
9. Which theory is most associated with the development of parent management training
programmes?
A. Bowlby’s attachment theory
B. Eysenck’s personality theory
*C. Patterson’s social learning theory
D. Walters’ lifestyle theory
10. The antisocial potential (AP) of Farrington’s (2005) Integrated Cognitive Antisocial Potential
(ICAP) theory assumes that the translation from antisocial potential to antisocial behaviour is
contingent upon <1>
<1> cognitive processes that take account of opportunities and victims
11. Long-term AP depends on motivating and situational factors.
A. True
*B. False
12. From the list below, identify those features of Farrington’s ICAP theory that are purported to
directly contribute to short-term AP.
*A. Being bored or frustrated
B. Impulsiveness
*C. Opportunities
D. Antisocial models
E. Attachment
,Chapter 3 – Psychopathy
1. In which region/country is the cut-off for the PCL-R a score of 25?
A. North America
B. Mainland Europe
*C. United Kingdom
2. The PCL-R is split into two broad factors. Factor 1 measures the lifestyle/antisocial features of
the disorder and Factor 2 assesses the interpersonal/affective features of psychopathology.
A. True
*B. False
3. Unlike psychopaths, individuals with ASPD may not necessarily show <1> and <2> traits.
Possible answers:
<1> callous
<2> unemotional
4. When comparing primary and secondary psychopaths, secondary psychopaths appear to be:
*A. Neurotic and anxious
B. Angry and violent
C. Nervous and excitable
5. There are two types of aggression. <1> aggression is the unplanned or impulsive act of
violence in response to some form of provocation, threat, or danger, whereas <2> aggression is
goal-directed acts of violence that are typically executed in a predetermined and calculating
manner.
<1> reactive
<2> instrumental
6. Callous and unemotional traits in children with conduct disorders are associated with a pattern
of instrumental aggression similar to that seen in adult psychopaths.
*A. True
B. False
7. Early physical abuse and non-parental living arrangements have been shown to be related to:
A. Factor 1 traits
, *B. Factor 2 traits
C. Neither Factor 1 or 2 traits, as psychopathy is only biologically based
8. The Violence Inhibition Mechanism (VIM) was constructed to account for what type of
aggression?
*A. Instrumental aggression
B. Reactive aggression
9. Patients with bilateral amygdala damage show impaired recognition of angry faces.
A. True
*B. False
10. Children with callous-unemotional traits show a tendency to look at the <1> region of faces
rather than the <2>.
<1> mouth
<2> eye region
11. The Mitchell et al. (2013) study found that compared to average levels, the levels of oxytocin
in convicted serious offenders were:
A. Much lower than average
B. Just average
*C. Highly elevated above average
,Chapter 4 – Understanding Risk Factors for Offending: The Contributions of Neuroscience
1. Minor physical anomalies (MPAs) have been shown to correlate with aggressive behaviours.
They may be due to:
A. Genes
B. Anoxia
C. Bleeding
D. Infection
*E. All of the above
2. The greater the amount of maternal smoking during pregnancy, the greater the risk of
criminality later in life.
*A. True
B. False
3. Obstetrical (birth) complications interact with psychosocial risk factors, such as severe
maternal rejection, when they exert an influence on antisocial behaviour.
*A. True
B. False
4. Below are three risk factors for antisocial behaviour. Two are post-natal risk factors and one is
a prenatal risk factor. Can you identify the prenatal risk factor?
A. Traumatic brain injury (TBI)
B. Attachment
*C. Foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
5. Which attachment style is most often associated with parental maltreatment and is sometimes
indicative of the parent having experienced an unresolved loss or trauma of their own?
A. Secure (autonomous) attachment
B. Dismissive attachment
C. Preoccupied/anxious attachment
*D. Disorganised attachment
6. Attachment at the neurobiological level is primarily driven by oxytocin and <1>.
<1> arginine vasopressin
, 7. Monoamine oxidase-A (MAO-A) has been linked to antisocial behaviour.
*A. True
B. False
8. The modification of which of these risk factors has not been shown to reduce antisocial
behaviour?
A. Prenatal alcohol exposure
*B. Smoking in pregnancy
C. Omega-3 fatty acid supplements
D. Prenatal education in nutrition, health, and parenting
9. A preoccupied/anxious attachment style is most commonly associated with psychopathy.
A. True
*B. False
10. <1> disorder is often a precursor to antisocial behaviour.
<1> Conduct
11. The limbic system, particularly the amygdala and the anterior cingulated, is associated with
social behaviour.
*A. True
B. False
12. Give the full name of a technique that has been used to examine the structural integrity of the
brain.
*Computerized axial tomography; magnetic resonance imaging; diffusion
Justice, Law, Interventions, 3rd Edition by
Graham M. Davies
Hello all ,
We have all what you need with best price
Our email :
Our website :
testbanks-store.com
,Chapter 1 – Psychological Approaches to Understanding Crime
1. At which stage of Gibbs’ (2003) theory of “sociomoral reasoning” can an individual be
described as having reached mature moral reasoning?
*Stage 3
2. According to Gibbs (2003, 2010, 2014), what is the main offence-supporting distortion?
A. Hostile attributional bias
*B. Egocentric bias
C. Minimising the consequences of antisocial behaviour
D. Blaming others for one’s own antisocial behaviour
3. In Crick and Dodge’s (1994) six-stage model of social information-processing, individuals can
simultaneously perform all six different steps, thus allowing for feedback between processes.
*A. True
B. False
4. Cognitive shortcuts help to process information quickly at stage <1> of Crick and Dodge’s
(1994) model of social information-processing
<1> two
5. Which areas of the brain have been shown by research to have an association with violent
behaviour?
*The frontal and temporal lobes
6. According to Malamuth, Heavey, and Linz’s (1993) interaction model, sexual aggression is
the result of an interaction between the <1> path and the <2> path.
<1> hostile masculinity
<2> sexual promiscuity
7. Who developed the Integrated Theory of Sexual Offending?
A. Malamuth et al. (1993)
B. Finkelhor (1984)
*C. Ward and Beech (2006)
D. Hall and Hirschmann (1992)
8. Neurological disorders show a strong association with arson.
, A. True
*B. False
9. Which of these is one of the proposed explanations for the relationship between schizophrenia
and offending?
A. Schizophrenia causes offending
B. Schizophrenia is a consequence of offending
C. Schizophrenia and offending are merely correlated, so there is no causal relationship
between the two
*D. All of the above
10. Which DSM-IV category of personality disorder is the most associated with offending
behaviour?
A. Cluster A (odd-eccentric)
*B. Cluster B (dramatic-emotional-erratic)
C. Cluster C (anxious-fearful)
11. “Psychopathic disorder” is a clinical diagnosis.
A. True
*B. False
12. In terms of characteristics that appear to define most psychopaths, highlight the odd one out
from the list below:
A. A lack of guilt/remorse
B. Impulsiveness
C. Irresponsibility
D. Pathological lying
*E. Autism
,Chapter 2 – Developmental and Psychological Theories of Offending
1. The four dimensions of Lahey and Waldman’s (2005) developmental propensity theory – (i)
low cognitive ability; ii) prosociality; iii) daring; iv) negative emotionality – are said to have a
genetic basis.
*A. True
B. False
2. The “maturity gap” is associated with which component of Moffitt’s (1993) developmental
taxonomy?
A. The life-course-persistent theory
*B. The adolescence-limited theory
3. According to Thornberry and Krohn’s (2005) interactional theory, at what age range are
neuropsychological deficits proposed to be the most important in explaining offending
behaviour?
*A. Birth to 6 years of age
B. 6 to 12 years of age
C. 12 to 18 years of age
D. 18 to 25 years of age
4. Thornberry and Krohn (2001) proposed that changing social influences, protective factors
such as high intelligence, and intervention programmes can cause <1>
<1> desistance
5. Which developmental theory focuses explicitly on why people do not offend, rather than on
why they do offend?
A. Developmental propensity theory (Lahey & Waldman, 2005)
B. The developmental taxonomy of adolescence-limited versus life-course-persistent
offenders (Moffitt, 1993)
C. Interactional theory (Thornberry & Krohn, 2005)
* D. Age-graded informal social control theory (Sampson & Laub, 2005)
6. <1> theory hypothesises that broken homes have a significant impact on offending behaviour.
<1> Attachment
7. Classical (automatic) conditioning is a key component of Eysenck’s personality theory.
*A. True
B. False
,8. According to research on the relationship between child-rearing methods and offending, which
factor is the strongest and most replicable predictor of offending?
*A. Parental supervision
B. Discipline or parental reinforcement
C. The warmth/coldness of emotional relationships
D. Parental involvement with children
9. Which theory is most associated with the development of parent management training
programmes?
A. Bowlby’s attachment theory
B. Eysenck’s personality theory
*C. Patterson’s social learning theory
D. Walters’ lifestyle theory
10. The antisocial potential (AP) of Farrington’s (2005) Integrated Cognitive Antisocial Potential
(ICAP) theory assumes that the translation from antisocial potential to antisocial behaviour is
contingent upon <1>
<1> cognitive processes that take account of opportunities and victims
11. Long-term AP depends on motivating and situational factors.
A. True
*B. False
12. From the list below, identify those features of Farrington’s ICAP theory that are purported to
directly contribute to short-term AP.
*A. Being bored or frustrated
B. Impulsiveness
*C. Opportunities
D. Antisocial models
E. Attachment
,Chapter 3 – Psychopathy
1. In which region/country is the cut-off for the PCL-R a score of 25?
A. North America
B. Mainland Europe
*C. United Kingdom
2. The PCL-R is split into two broad factors. Factor 1 measures the lifestyle/antisocial features of
the disorder and Factor 2 assesses the interpersonal/affective features of psychopathology.
A. True
*B. False
3. Unlike psychopaths, individuals with ASPD may not necessarily show <1> and <2> traits.
Possible answers:
<1> callous
<2> unemotional
4. When comparing primary and secondary psychopaths, secondary psychopaths appear to be:
*A. Neurotic and anxious
B. Angry and violent
C. Nervous and excitable
5. There are two types of aggression. <1> aggression is the unplanned or impulsive act of
violence in response to some form of provocation, threat, or danger, whereas <2> aggression is
goal-directed acts of violence that are typically executed in a predetermined and calculating
manner.
<1> reactive
<2> instrumental
6. Callous and unemotional traits in children with conduct disorders are associated with a pattern
of instrumental aggression similar to that seen in adult psychopaths.
*A. True
B. False
7. Early physical abuse and non-parental living arrangements have been shown to be related to:
A. Factor 1 traits
, *B. Factor 2 traits
C. Neither Factor 1 or 2 traits, as psychopathy is only biologically based
8. The Violence Inhibition Mechanism (VIM) was constructed to account for what type of
aggression?
*A. Instrumental aggression
B. Reactive aggression
9. Patients with bilateral amygdala damage show impaired recognition of angry faces.
A. True
*B. False
10. Children with callous-unemotional traits show a tendency to look at the <1> region of faces
rather than the <2>.
<1> mouth
<2> eye region
11. The Mitchell et al. (2013) study found that compared to average levels, the levels of oxytocin
in convicted serious offenders were:
A. Much lower than average
B. Just average
*C. Highly elevated above average
,Chapter 4 – Understanding Risk Factors for Offending: The Contributions of Neuroscience
1. Minor physical anomalies (MPAs) have been shown to correlate with aggressive behaviours.
They may be due to:
A. Genes
B. Anoxia
C. Bleeding
D. Infection
*E. All of the above
2. The greater the amount of maternal smoking during pregnancy, the greater the risk of
criminality later in life.
*A. True
B. False
3. Obstetrical (birth) complications interact with psychosocial risk factors, such as severe
maternal rejection, when they exert an influence on antisocial behaviour.
*A. True
B. False
4. Below are three risk factors for antisocial behaviour. Two are post-natal risk factors and one is
a prenatal risk factor. Can you identify the prenatal risk factor?
A. Traumatic brain injury (TBI)
B. Attachment
*C. Foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
5. Which attachment style is most often associated with parental maltreatment and is sometimes
indicative of the parent having experienced an unresolved loss or trauma of their own?
A. Secure (autonomous) attachment
B. Dismissive attachment
C. Preoccupied/anxious attachment
*D. Disorganised attachment
6. Attachment at the neurobiological level is primarily driven by oxytocin and <1>.
<1> arginine vasopressin
, 7. Monoamine oxidase-A (MAO-A) has been linked to antisocial behaviour.
*A. True
B. False
8. The modification of which of these risk factors has not been shown to reduce antisocial
behaviour?
A. Prenatal alcohol exposure
*B. Smoking in pregnancy
C. Omega-3 fatty acid supplements
D. Prenatal education in nutrition, health, and parenting
9. A preoccupied/anxious attachment style is most commonly associated with psychopathy.
A. True
*B. False
10. <1> disorder is often a precursor to antisocial behaviour.
<1> Conduct
11. The limbic system, particularly the amygdala and the anterior cingulated, is associated with
social behaviour.
*A. True
B. False
12. Give the full name of a technique that has been used to examine the structural integrity of the
brain.
*Computerized axial tomography; magnetic resonance imaging; diffusion
