WHNP Board Review – Random
Questions With Correct Answers
Primary Amenorrhea - Answer no menstruation by age 14 in absence of secondary
sex characteristics, or by 16 regardless of secondary sex characteristic development
Ovarian Cancer Risk Factors - Answer Low Parity, Early Menarche, Late
Menopause, history of breast, colon, or endometrial cancer
Gonads should be removed after puberty in a person with androgen insensitivity or
resistance syndrome to PREVENT - Answer gonadal malignancies. Gonads should
be removed by 16-18 years in people with androgen insensitivity/resistance to
reduce risk of malignant transformation of gonads (5%). incidence is rare before
puberty.
A person with latent syphilis may present with - Answer NO SIGNS OF INFECTION.
detection is through serological testing
This treatment for chlamydia shouldn't be used in pregnancy due to risk of TOOTH
DISCOLORATION IN CHILDREN. - Answer doxycycline
PLISSET Model - Answer May be used by non-sex therapists when counseling
patients with sexual dysfunction. P = permission giving, LI = Limited Information, SS
= specific suggestions, IT = intensive therapy
androgen insensitivity or resistance syndrome - Answer genetically transmitted
androgen receptor defect. The individual is a genotypic male (46XY) but is
phenotypically female, or has both female/male characteristics. Will have normal
breasts with small nipples/areola, scant/absent pubic hair, and no uterus or ovaries.
Testes are present and either partially descended or intraabdominal.
Most common benign neoplasm of cervix - Answer polyp. most often in
perimenopausal and multigravida women between 30-50
Most common presenting symptom of vulvar cancer - Answer Pruritus
Most common symptoms of vulvar cancer - Answer vulvar pruritus, pain, bleeding,
odorous discharge that may be blood tinged, and lesions
potential causes for galactorrhea - Answer hypo/hyper-thyroidism, use of
opiates/cannabis, excessive breast stimulation, pituitary adenoma, use of some
medications
Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer - Answer 1-2%
Most common site of vaginal cancer - Answer Upper 1/3 of vagina
Risk factors of endometrial cancer - Answer Obesity, DM, HTN, family hx, early
menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen therapy, oligo-ovulation,
anovulation, estrogen secreting tumors, PCOS due to unopposed estrogen an
anovulation
,WHNP Board Review – Random
Questions With Correct Answers
most common ovarian germ cell tumor is - Answer DERMOID CYST aka benign
cystic teratoma
Turner's Syndrome physical characteristics - Answer lack of breast development,
scant pubic hair, normal uterus and vagina, absent or streak ovaries, short stature,
webbed neck, shield chest with wide spaced nipples. cardiac/renal anomalies may
also be present.
advanced cervical cancer symptoms (mid) - Answer irregular painless bleeding,
odorous bloody or purulent discharge,
late symptoms of cervical cancer - Answer pelvic/epigastric pain, urinary/rectal
symptoms
Urine specific gravity range - Answer 1.005 - 1.030
Normal Urine pH - Answer 4.6 to 8.0
The CONCEPTUS - Answer the embryo, fetal membranes, and placenta
Normal Size Uterus of reproductive aged woman multiparous - Answer 8 cm x 5 cm
x 2.5 cm
normal size of ovaries in reproductive aged woman - Answer 3 x 2 x 1 cm
Complication that may be encountered with Duncan mechanism of placental delivery
- Answer increased bleeding due to incomplete separation of placenta
Complete breech presentation - Answer both hips + knees flexed (like cannonball
dive), buttocks presenting
most common breech presentation - Answer complete breech
Hep B Surface antibody - Answer The presence of anti-HBs is generally interpreted
as indicating recovery and immunity from hepatitis B virus infection.
A "positive" or "reactive" anti-HBs (or HBsAb) test result indicates that a person is
protected against the hepatitis B virus.
Hep B Surface Antigen - Answer A "positive" or "reactive" HBsAg test result means
that the person is infected with hepatitis B.
Will be present in acute active infection AND ALSO in chronic carrier states
Activin - Answer polypeptide hormone produced by the ovaries that stimulates FSH
production
Inhibin B - Answer polypeptide hormone that inhibits FSH production
, WHNP Board Review – Random
Questions With Correct Answers
it is a MAJOR ovarian peptide hormone that rises and falls in 1st half of follicular
phase, peaks midcycle, and falls to lowest level in luteal phase. Forms negative
feedback loop (inhibits) to fine tune pituitary FSH regulation
Follistatin - Answer binds with activin hormone to deactivate it, thus inhibiting FSH
production
Treatment for Partially Expelled IUC for woman who would like to continue with an
IUC - Answer Remove IUC. Place new one at same visit. Start Doxycycline for 5-7
days to prevent infection.
partially expulsed IUC should be removed!
HIV 1 P-24 antigen test - Answer Detects HIV antigen as early as 2-6 weeks post-
infection and declines as HIV antibodies develop.
HIV antibody detectability - Answer Detectable in 95% of individuals 6 months post-
infection
Vaginal pH in normal reproductive aged woman - Answer acidic, less than 4.5 pH
Management of patient with intrauterine pregnancy with a copper IUC in place -
Answer IUC must be removed promptly regardless of her plans for her pregnancy.
REMOVAL reduces risk of spontaneous abortion. Leaving in place increases risk for
spontaneous septic abortion and preterm delivery.
No risk of congenital defects with copper exposure
During contractions, intervillous blood flow to the placenta... - Answer decreases
Estrogen is released by the ovary in response to - Answer FSH
Do combined oral contraceptives decrease risk of cervical cancer? - Answer No.
Noncontraceptive benefits include decreased risk of benign breast disease, ovarian
cancer, and endometrial cancer
pudendal block - Answer gets its name because a local anesthetic, such as lidocaine
or chloroprocaine, is injected into the pudendal canal where the pudendal nerve is
located.
This allows quick pain relief to the perineum, vulva, and vagina. A pudendal block is
usually given in the second stage of labor just before delivery of the baby. It relieves
pain around the vagina and rectum as the baby comes down the birth canal. It is also
helpful just before an episiotomy.
optimal time for pudendal block in multiparous client - Answer 2nd stage of labor, at
approximately 8-9 cm dilated, just before complete dilation in a multiparous client as
it covers birth and repair if needed
Questions With Correct Answers
Primary Amenorrhea - Answer no menstruation by age 14 in absence of secondary
sex characteristics, or by 16 regardless of secondary sex characteristic development
Ovarian Cancer Risk Factors - Answer Low Parity, Early Menarche, Late
Menopause, history of breast, colon, or endometrial cancer
Gonads should be removed after puberty in a person with androgen insensitivity or
resistance syndrome to PREVENT - Answer gonadal malignancies. Gonads should
be removed by 16-18 years in people with androgen insensitivity/resistance to
reduce risk of malignant transformation of gonads (5%). incidence is rare before
puberty.
A person with latent syphilis may present with - Answer NO SIGNS OF INFECTION.
detection is through serological testing
This treatment for chlamydia shouldn't be used in pregnancy due to risk of TOOTH
DISCOLORATION IN CHILDREN. - Answer doxycycline
PLISSET Model - Answer May be used by non-sex therapists when counseling
patients with sexual dysfunction. P = permission giving, LI = Limited Information, SS
= specific suggestions, IT = intensive therapy
androgen insensitivity or resistance syndrome - Answer genetically transmitted
androgen receptor defect. The individual is a genotypic male (46XY) but is
phenotypically female, or has both female/male characteristics. Will have normal
breasts with small nipples/areola, scant/absent pubic hair, and no uterus or ovaries.
Testes are present and either partially descended or intraabdominal.
Most common benign neoplasm of cervix - Answer polyp. most often in
perimenopausal and multigravida women between 30-50
Most common presenting symptom of vulvar cancer - Answer Pruritus
Most common symptoms of vulvar cancer - Answer vulvar pruritus, pain, bleeding,
odorous discharge that may be blood tinged, and lesions
potential causes for galactorrhea - Answer hypo/hyper-thyroidism, use of
opiates/cannabis, excessive breast stimulation, pituitary adenoma, use of some
medications
Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer - Answer 1-2%
Most common site of vaginal cancer - Answer Upper 1/3 of vagina
Risk factors of endometrial cancer - Answer Obesity, DM, HTN, family hx, early
menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen therapy, oligo-ovulation,
anovulation, estrogen secreting tumors, PCOS due to unopposed estrogen an
anovulation
,WHNP Board Review – Random
Questions With Correct Answers
most common ovarian germ cell tumor is - Answer DERMOID CYST aka benign
cystic teratoma
Turner's Syndrome physical characteristics - Answer lack of breast development,
scant pubic hair, normal uterus and vagina, absent or streak ovaries, short stature,
webbed neck, shield chest with wide spaced nipples. cardiac/renal anomalies may
also be present.
advanced cervical cancer symptoms (mid) - Answer irregular painless bleeding,
odorous bloody or purulent discharge,
late symptoms of cervical cancer - Answer pelvic/epigastric pain, urinary/rectal
symptoms
Urine specific gravity range - Answer 1.005 - 1.030
Normal Urine pH - Answer 4.6 to 8.0
The CONCEPTUS - Answer the embryo, fetal membranes, and placenta
Normal Size Uterus of reproductive aged woman multiparous - Answer 8 cm x 5 cm
x 2.5 cm
normal size of ovaries in reproductive aged woman - Answer 3 x 2 x 1 cm
Complication that may be encountered with Duncan mechanism of placental delivery
- Answer increased bleeding due to incomplete separation of placenta
Complete breech presentation - Answer both hips + knees flexed (like cannonball
dive), buttocks presenting
most common breech presentation - Answer complete breech
Hep B Surface antibody - Answer The presence of anti-HBs is generally interpreted
as indicating recovery and immunity from hepatitis B virus infection.
A "positive" or "reactive" anti-HBs (or HBsAb) test result indicates that a person is
protected against the hepatitis B virus.
Hep B Surface Antigen - Answer A "positive" or "reactive" HBsAg test result means
that the person is infected with hepatitis B.
Will be present in acute active infection AND ALSO in chronic carrier states
Activin - Answer polypeptide hormone produced by the ovaries that stimulates FSH
production
Inhibin B - Answer polypeptide hormone that inhibits FSH production
, WHNP Board Review – Random
Questions With Correct Answers
it is a MAJOR ovarian peptide hormone that rises and falls in 1st half of follicular
phase, peaks midcycle, and falls to lowest level in luteal phase. Forms negative
feedback loop (inhibits) to fine tune pituitary FSH regulation
Follistatin - Answer binds with activin hormone to deactivate it, thus inhibiting FSH
production
Treatment for Partially Expelled IUC for woman who would like to continue with an
IUC - Answer Remove IUC. Place new one at same visit. Start Doxycycline for 5-7
days to prevent infection.
partially expulsed IUC should be removed!
HIV 1 P-24 antigen test - Answer Detects HIV antigen as early as 2-6 weeks post-
infection and declines as HIV antibodies develop.
HIV antibody detectability - Answer Detectable in 95% of individuals 6 months post-
infection
Vaginal pH in normal reproductive aged woman - Answer acidic, less than 4.5 pH
Management of patient with intrauterine pregnancy with a copper IUC in place -
Answer IUC must be removed promptly regardless of her plans for her pregnancy.
REMOVAL reduces risk of spontaneous abortion. Leaving in place increases risk for
spontaneous septic abortion and preterm delivery.
No risk of congenital defects with copper exposure
During contractions, intervillous blood flow to the placenta... - Answer decreases
Estrogen is released by the ovary in response to - Answer FSH
Do combined oral contraceptives decrease risk of cervical cancer? - Answer No.
Noncontraceptive benefits include decreased risk of benign breast disease, ovarian
cancer, and endometrial cancer
pudendal block - Answer gets its name because a local anesthetic, such as lidocaine
or chloroprocaine, is injected into the pudendal canal where the pudendal nerve is
located.
This allows quick pain relief to the perineum, vulva, and vagina. A pudendal block is
usually given in the second stage of labor just before delivery of the baby. It relieves
pain around the vagina and rectum as the baby comes down the birth canal. It is also
helpful just before an episiotomy.
optimal time for pudendal block in multiparous client - Answer 2nd stage of labor, at
approximately 8-9 cm dilated, just before complete dilation in a multiparous client as
it covers birth and repair if needed
