PEAT Exam 2
PEAT EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025 COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS)|ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A physical therapist is treating a young athlete with gastrocnemius muscle strength of Fair
plus (3+/5). In the prone position, which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate to
maximize strengthening?
A. Resistive exercises with the knee bent
B. Resistive exercises with the knee straight
C. Active assistive exercises with the knee bent
D. Active assistive exercises with the knee straight - ANSWER-B.
With a muscle grade of Fair plus, the patient should not need active assistive exercise. Resistive
exercise against gravity would be most appropriate to strengthen this muscle. Since the
gastrocnemius crosses both the knee and ankle, bending the knee would put the gastrocnemius
in a shortened position and lessen its ability to produce tension. Therefore, exercising with the
knee straight would put the gastrocnemius on stretch, increasing its ability to produce tension.
1. Following spinal joint mobilization procedures, a patient calls the therapist and reports a
minor dull ache in the treated area of the back that lasted for 2 to 3 hours. Based on this
symptom, the therapist should:
A. consider a possible neurological lesion in the area.
B. refer the patient back to the physician.
C. inform the patient that this response is common.
D. add strengthening exercises to the home program. - ANSWER-C.
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, PEAT Exam 2
Joint mobilization procedures may cause some soreness. The therapist should inform the
patient of this response to treatment. The therapist should re-evaluate the patient and could
alter the treatment by waiting an extra day before the next treatment or by decreasing the
dosage. There would not be a need to refer to the physician. The addition of exercises would
not alter the response and there would be no indication of neurological involvement with the
reported symptoms
1. A 90 year-old patient with chronic congestive heart failure has been non-ambulatory and a
nursing home resident for the past year. The patient was recently admitted to the hospital
following an episode of dehydration. Which of the following plans for prophylactic respiratory
care is MOST appropriate?
A. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 1 to 2 waking hours
B. Vigorous percussion and vibration 4 times/day
C. Gentle vibration with the foot of the bed elevated 1 time/day
D. Segmental postural drainage using standard positions throughout the day - ANSWER-A.
A patient who is bed-bound and immobile will be prone to developing atelectasis (partial
collapse of lung tissue), which can then lead to pneumonia. Frequent position changes with
deep breathing and coughing will help prevent development of atelectasis. Given that this
patient is elderly and does not have a diagnosis of secretion retention, vigorous percussion and
vibration is not indicated. Vibration with the head down or standard postural drainage positions
will not be tolerated in this elderly patient with chronic congestive heart failure.
1. To help students apply a newly learned skill to clinical practice, the MOST effective action for
the clinical instructor to take is to:
A. point out possible patient situations and discuss how the skill would apply to them.
B. have the students research reference materials and compile a list of the steps required to
acquire the skill.
C. prepare a list of indications and contraindications for the skill.
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, PEAT Exam 2
D. have the students provide examples of patient situations where the skill would be
appropriately applied. - ANSWER-D.
Behavioral objectives should be learner centered, outcome oriented, specific, and measurable.
Option D is the only one that is learner (student) centered and specific to a situation. Options A
and C require action by the clinical instructor, not the student. Option B, which may be a step in
the process, is not as learner centered or outcome centered as Option D.
1. To prevent contractures in a patient with a transfemoral amputation, emphasis should be
placed on designing a positioning program that maintains range of motion in hip:
A. flexion and abduction.
B. extension and adduction.
C. adduction and lateral (external) rotation.
D. flexion and medial (internal) rotation. - ANSWER-B.
Following an above knee (transfemoral) amputation, the residual limb has a tendency to
develop contractures in the hip flexors and abductors. Therefore, it is particularly important that
the patient be positioned so as to maintain full range of motion in hip extension and adduction.
1. After a long-term history of bilateral lower extremity vascular insufficiency, an otherwise
healthy patient had a right transfemoral amputation. For this patient, which of the following
factors is MOST important in establishing long-term goals for functional walking?
A. Status of the wound at the amputation site
B. Range of motion of the right hip
C. Condition of the left lower extremity
D. Ability to maintain upright posture - ANSWER-C.
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, PEAT Exam 2
The left limb must function as the main support limb. Any treatment strategy for ambulation
must ensure that the remaining limb is optimally functioning and that the limb is healthy. While
the other factors are relevant, the integrity of the remaining limb is the greatest concern for this
patient in establishing long term, functional goals.
1. A physical therapist is conducting a 12-minute walk test with a patient who has chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease and uses 2 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula. The patient's
resting oxygen saturation is 91% and resting heart rate, 110 bpm. The oxygen flow should be
increased if the:
A. patient's carbon dioxide level starts to increase.
B. patient starts to report shortness of breath.
C. patient's oxygen saturation falls below 87%.
D. patient's heart rate is greater than 150 bpm. - ANSWER-C.
A fall in oxygen saturation below 87 % is equivalent to a partial pressure of 55 mm Hg of oxygen
in the blood, which is considered to be moderately hypoxemic (low oxygen levels). This situation
would require increased oxygen levels in order to be rectified. A rise is carbon dioxide level
would not be alleviated by increased oxygen levels. Complaints of shortness of breath can come
from a variety of causes and would not necessarily be alleviated by increased oxygen levels. An
increase in HR to 150 bpm may be a normal response to this activity and would not necessarily
require increased oxygen levels.
1. When training a patient to increase muscle activity with the use of electromyographic
biofeedback, the physical therapist should adjust the unit so that sensitivity:
A. starts low and increases as the patient shows an increase in muscle activity.
B. starts high and decreases as the patient shows an increase in muscle activity.
C. remains at approximately midrange during the entire treatment period.
D. is not set, since this is not necessary for this form of biofeedback. - ANSWER-B.
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PEAT EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025 COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS)|ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A physical therapist is treating a young athlete with gastrocnemius muscle strength of Fair
plus (3+/5). In the prone position, which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate to
maximize strengthening?
A. Resistive exercises with the knee bent
B. Resistive exercises with the knee straight
C. Active assistive exercises with the knee bent
D. Active assistive exercises with the knee straight - ANSWER-B.
With a muscle grade of Fair plus, the patient should not need active assistive exercise. Resistive
exercise against gravity would be most appropriate to strengthen this muscle. Since the
gastrocnemius crosses both the knee and ankle, bending the knee would put the gastrocnemius
in a shortened position and lessen its ability to produce tension. Therefore, exercising with the
knee straight would put the gastrocnemius on stretch, increasing its ability to produce tension.
1. Following spinal joint mobilization procedures, a patient calls the therapist and reports a
minor dull ache in the treated area of the back that lasted for 2 to 3 hours. Based on this
symptom, the therapist should:
A. consider a possible neurological lesion in the area.
B. refer the patient back to the physician.
C. inform the patient that this response is common.
D. add strengthening exercises to the home program. - ANSWER-C.
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, PEAT Exam 2
Joint mobilization procedures may cause some soreness. The therapist should inform the
patient of this response to treatment. The therapist should re-evaluate the patient and could
alter the treatment by waiting an extra day before the next treatment or by decreasing the
dosage. There would not be a need to refer to the physician. The addition of exercises would
not alter the response and there would be no indication of neurological involvement with the
reported symptoms
1. A 90 year-old patient with chronic congestive heart failure has been non-ambulatory and a
nursing home resident for the past year. The patient was recently admitted to the hospital
following an episode of dehydration. Which of the following plans for prophylactic respiratory
care is MOST appropriate?
A. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 1 to 2 waking hours
B. Vigorous percussion and vibration 4 times/day
C. Gentle vibration with the foot of the bed elevated 1 time/day
D. Segmental postural drainage using standard positions throughout the day - ANSWER-A.
A patient who is bed-bound and immobile will be prone to developing atelectasis (partial
collapse of lung tissue), which can then lead to pneumonia. Frequent position changes with
deep breathing and coughing will help prevent development of atelectasis. Given that this
patient is elderly and does not have a diagnosis of secretion retention, vigorous percussion and
vibration is not indicated. Vibration with the head down or standard postural drainage positions
will not be tolerated in this elderly patient with chronic congestive heart failure.
1. To help students apply a newly learned skill to clinical practice, the MOST effective action for
the clinical instructor to take is to:
A. point out possible patient situations and discuss how the skill would apply to them.
B. have the students research reference materials and compile a list of the steps required to
acquire the skill.
C. prepare a list of indications and contraindications for the skill.
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, PEAT Exam 2
D. have the students provide examples of patient situations where the skill would be
appropriately applied. - ANSWER-D.
Behavioral objectives should be learner centered, outcome oriented, specific, and measurable.
Option D is the only one that is learner (student) centered and specific to a situation. Options A
and C require action by the clinical instructor, not the student. Option B, which may be a step in
the process, is not as learner centered or outcome centered as Option D.
1. To prevent contractures in a patient with a transfemoral amputation, emphasis should be
placed on designing a positioning program that maintains range of motion in hip:
A. flexion and abduction.
B. extension and adduction.
C. adduction and lateral (external) rotation.
D. flexion and medial (internal) rotation. - ANSWER-B.
Following an above knee (transfemoral) amputation, the residual limb has a tendency to
develop contractures in the hip flexors and abductors. Therefore, it is particularly important that
the patient be positioned so as to maintain full range of motion in hip extension and adduction.
1. After a long-term history of bilateral lower extremity vascular insufficiency, an otherwise
healthy patient had a right transfemoral amputation. For this patient, which of the following
factors is MOST important in establishing long-term goals for functional walking?
A. Status of the wound at the amputation site
B. Range of motion of the right hip
C. Condition of the left lower extremity
D. Ability to maintain upright posture - ANSWER-C.
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, PEAT Exam 2
The left limb must function as the main support limb. Any treatment strategy for ambulation
must ensure that the remaining limb is optimally functioning and that the limb is healthy. While
the other factors are relevant, the integrity of the remaining limb is the greatest concern for this
patient in establishing long term, functional goals.
1. A physical therapist is conducting a 12-minute walk test with a patient who has chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease and uses 2 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula. The patient's
resting oxygen saturation is 91% and resting heart rate, 110 bpm. The oxygen flow should be
increased if the:
A. patient's carbon dioxide level starts to increase.
B. patient starts to report shortness of breath.
C. patient's oxygen saturation falls below 87%.
D. patient's heart rate is greater than 150 bpm. - ANSWER-C.
A fall in oxygen saturation below 87 % is equivalent to a partial pressure of 55 mm Hg of oxygen
in the blood, which is considered to be moderately hypoxemic (low oxygen levels). This situation
would require increased oxygen levels in order to be rectified. A rise is carbon dioxide level
would not be alleviated by increased oxygen levels. Complaints of shortness of breath can come
from a variety of causes and would not necessarily be alleviated by increased oxygen levels. An
increase in HR to 150 bpm may be a normal response to this activity and would not necessarily
require increased oxygen levels.
1. When training a patient to increase muscle activity with the use of electromyographic
biofeedback, the physical therapist should adjust the unit so that sensitivity:
A. starts low and increases as the patient shows an increase in muscle activity.
B. starts high and decreases as the patient shows an increase in muscle activity.
C. remains at approximately midrange during the entire treatment period.
D. is not set, since this is not necessary for this form of biofeedback. - ANSWER-B.
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