PEAT Exam 4
PEAT EXAM 4 NEWEST 2025 COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS)|ALREADY GRADED A+
1) During an examination of elbow strength using manual muscle testing, a patient supinates
the forearm when attempting elbow flexion. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely
doing the major part of the work?
1. Biceps brachii
2. Brachialis
3. Supinator
4. Brachioradialis - ANSWER-1
The biceps brachii is both an elbow flexor and supinator, and it is most effective as a supinator
with the elbow flexed to about 90° (approximately the muscle testing position). The brachialis
does not cause supination (only flexion). The supinator does not flex the elbow. The
brachioradialis would move the forearm to a midposition rather than fully supinating it.
Therefore, when the elbow both flexes and supinates, the biceps brachii would be the most
likely muscle causing this action.
1) During evaluation of a patient's balance, a physical therapist gently pushes the patient
backward slightly and observes how the patient recovers from the perturbation. What strategy
is the patient MOST likely to use to correct for the perturbation?
1. Knee
2. Hip
3. Ankle
4. Stepping - ANSWER-3
1|Page
, PEAT Exam 4
Regarding options 1 and 2, for larger perturbations, individuals utilize hip and knee muscles to
recover the balance. Regarding option 3, for slight perturbations, most individuals use an ankle
strategy. Ankle musculature is used to control the perturbation and recover the balance.
Regarding option 4, if the perturbation is strong enough to cause the individual's center of mass
to move outside the base of support, a stepping strategy would be employed by taking a step
and increasing the size of the base of support.
1) Which of the following findings BEST describes normal capillary filling?
1. Rebound vasodilation after icing
2. Blood pressure of 120/76 mm Hg
3. Pulse oximetry measurement of 98%
4. Blanching of the nail bed with color return in <3 seconds - ANSWER-4
By definition, the blanching of nail bed with color return in < 3 seconds is normal capillary refill.
1) Which of the following instructions is MOST appropriate for teaching a patient with C6
quadriplegia to transfer from a wheelchair to a mat?
1. Keep fingers extended to give a broader base of support.
2. Rotate head and shoulders in the same direction as the desired hip motion.
3. Rotate head and shoulders in the direction opposite to the desired hip motion.
4. Keep both hands next to the knees to lock the elbows. - ANSWER-3
The position described creates the necessary force to move the lower body in this transfer,
given the level of the spinal cord injury. Finger extension against resistance would be difficult for
a patient with C6 quadriplegia. The patient's hands would be kept near the thigh or hips with
one hand on the mat and one on the wheelchair.
2|Page
, PEAT Exam 4
1) A patient has a spinal cord injury that resulted in damage to the sacral segments and
disruption of the sacral reflex arc. The patient is MOST likely to have which of the following
characteristics?
1. Voluntary control of defecation
2. Tonic contraction of the external anal sphincter
3. Flaccidity of pelvic floor musculature
4. Permanent absence of the gastrocolic reflex - ANSWER-3
The external anal sphincter and pelvic floor muscles are composed of striated muscle fibers.
They receive somatic innervation from sacral cord segments 2 through 4. With damage to these
segments, the sphincter and the pelvic floor muscles remain flaccid. The individual loses
voluntary control of defecation. The gastrocolic reflex, mediated by the intrinsic nervous system
of the GI tract, returns after resolution of spinal shock.
1) A patient who reports double vision has ptosis, lateral strabismus, and a dilated pupil in the
left eye. Which of the following cranial nerve test results is MOST likely to be abnormal?
1. Pupillary light reflex
2. Facial muscle strength
3. Jaw-jerk reflex
4. Pain sensation on the face - ANSWER-1
The cranial nerve involved is the oculomotor nerve. This nerve innervates the medial rectus,
which, if weak, would cause a lateral strabismus. The oculomotor nerve is also responsible for
mediating papillary constriction and a lesion would cause papillary dilation. The ptosis is caused
by loss of innervation to the levator palpabrae superioris muscle, which elevates the eyelid. The
double vision would be caused by the inability to move the eyeball normally, because four of
the six ocular muscles are controlled by the oculomotor nerve. The oculomotor nerve is also
3|Page
, PEAT Exam 4
important in mediating the pupillary light reflex. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of
facial expression. The trigeminal nerve mediates the jaw-jerk reflex and pain sensation from the
face.
1) In addition to standard precautions, what other precaution should a physical therapist
observe when working with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?
1. Airborne
2. Sterile
3. Droplet
4. Contact - ANSWER-4
Since methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is spread by contact, wearing a face shield or
mask is not necessary. Sterile precautions or techniques are not necessary for the physical
therapist to use with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
1) The physical therapist is positioning a patient for postural drainage. To BEST drain the
posterior segment of both lower lobes, the patient should be placed in which of the following
positions?
1. Prone, head down at a 45° angle
2. Supine, flat surface
3. Sidelying, head elevated at a 30° angle
4. Sitting, leaning forward - ANSWER-1
The best position for draining the posterior segment of both lower lobes would be prone lying
with the head down and the lower extremities and hips elevated to about 45°.
4|Page
PEAT EXAM 4 NEWEST 2025 COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS)|ALREADY GRADED A+
1) During an examination of elbow strength using manual muscle testing, a patient supinates
the forearm when attempting elbow flexion. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely
doing the major part of the work?
1. Biceps brachii
2. Brachialis
3. Supinator
4. Brachioradialis - ANSWER-1
The biceps brachii is both an elbow flexor and supinator, and it is most effective as a supinator
with the elbow flexed to about 90° (approximately the muscle testing position). The brachialis
does not cause supination (only flexion). The supinator does not flex the elbow. The
brachioradialis would move the forearm to a midposition rather than fully supinating it.
Therefore, when the elbow both flexes and supinates, the biceps brachii would be the most
likely muscle causing this action.
1) During evaluation of a patient's balance, a physical therapist gently pushes the patient
backward slightly and observes how the patient recovers from the perturbation. What strategy
is the patient MOST likely to use to correct for the perturbation?
1. Knee
2. Hip
3. Ankle
4. Stepping - ANSWER-3
1|Page
, PEAT Exam 4
Regarding options 1 and 2, for larger perturbations, individuals utilize hip and knee muscles to
recover the balance. Regarding option 3, for slight perturbations, most individuals use an ankle
strategy. Ankle musculature is used to control the perturbation and recover the balance.
Regarding option 4, if the perturbation is strong enough to cause the individual's center of mass
to move outside the base of support, a stepping strategy would be employed by taking a step
and increasing the size of the base of support.
1) Which of the following findings BEST describes normal capillary filling?
1. Rebound vasodilation after icing
2. Blood pressure of 120/76 mm Hg
3. Pulse oximetry measurement of 98%
4. Blanching of the nail bed with color return in <3 seconds - ANSWER-4
By definition, the blanching of nail bed with color return in < 3 seconds is normal capillary refill.
1) Which of the following instructions is MOST appropriate for teaching a patient with C6
quadriplegia to transfer from a wheelchair to a mat?
1. Keep fingers extended to give a broader base of support.
2. Rotate head and shoulders in the same direction as the desired hip motion.
3. Rotate head and shoulders in the direction opposite to the desired hip motion.
4. Keep both hands next to the knees to lock the elbows. - ANSWER-3
The position described creates the necessary force to move the lower body in this transfer,
given the level of the spinal cord injury. Finger extension against resistance would be difficult for
a patient with C6 quadriplegia. The patient's hands would be kept near the thigh or hips with
one hand on the mat and one on the wheelchair.
2|Page
, PEAT Exam 4
1) A patient has a spinal cord injury that resulted in damage to the sacral segments and
disruption of the sacral reflex arc. The patient is MOST likely to have which of the following
characteristics?
1. Voluntary control of defecation
2. Tonic contraction of the external anal sphincter
3. Flaccidity of pelvic floor musculature
4. Permanent absence of the gastrocolic reflex - ANSWER-3
The external anal sphincter and pelvic floor muscles are composed of striated muscle fibers.
They receive somatic innervation from sacral cord segments 2 through 4. With damage to these
segments, the sphincter and the pelvic floor muscles remain flaccid. The individual loses
voluntary control of defecation. The gastrocolic reflex, mediated by the intrinsic nervous system
of the GI tract, returns after resolution of spinal shock.
1) A patient who reports double vision has ptosis, lateral strabismus, and a dilated pupil in the
left eye. Which of the following cranial nerve test results is MOST likely to be abnormal?
1. Pupillary light reflex
2. Facial muscle strength
3. Jaw-jerk reflex
4. Pain sensation on the face - ANSWER-1
The cranial nerve involved is the oculomotor nerve. This nerve innervates the medial rectus,
which, if weak, would cause a lateral strabismus. The oculomotor nerve is also responsible for
mediating papillary constriction and a lesion would cause papillary dilation. The ptosis is caused
by loss of innervation to the levator palpabrae superioris muscle, which elevates the eyelid. The
double vision would be caused by the inability to move the eyeball normally, because four of
the six ocular muscles are controlled by the oculomotor nerve. The oculomotor nerve is also
3|Page
, PEAT Exam 4
important in mediating the pupillary light reflex. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of
facial expression. The trigeminal nerve mediates the jaw-jerk reflex and pain sensation from the
face.
1) In addition to standard precautions, what other precaution should a physical therapist
observe when working with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?
1. Airborne
2. Sterile
3. Droplet
4. Contact - ANSWER-4
Since methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is spread by contact, wearing a face shield or
mask is not necessary. Sterile precautions or techniques are not necessary for the physical
therapist to use with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
1) The physical therapist is positioning a patient for postural drainage. To BEST drain the
posterior segment of both lower lobes, the patient should be placed in which of the following
positions?
1. Prone, head down at a 45° angle
2. Supine, flat surface
3. Sidelying, head elevated at a 30° angle
4. Sitting, leaning forward - ANSWER-1
The best position for draining the posterior segment of both lower lobes would be prone lying
with the head down and the lower extremities and hips elevated to about 45°.
4|Page
