EVOLVE HESI PHARM RN NEWEST 2024 VERSION 3 COMPLETE 55 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which
assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - (answer) C) Purulent sputum.
Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an indication of infection, so this
symptom is of greatest concern. Oral steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain
normal, borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids.
The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding indicates the client
may have developed septic emboli?
A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
B) Bradycardia and bradypnea.
C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds.
D) 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. - (answer) A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing
a decrease in circulation to the hands (A) which may lead to gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal
findings, but do not indicate the development of septic emboli.
A 46-year-old female client is admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension.
Which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?
A) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN).
C) Sedimentation rate.
D) Urine specific gravity. - (answer) A) Serum creatinine.
, EVOLVE HESI PHARM RN NEWEST 2024 VERSION 3 COMPLETE 55 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS
(B) is also an indicator of renal activity, but it can be affected by non-renal factors such as hypovolemia
and increased protein intake. (C) is a nonspecific test for acute or chronic inflammatory processes. (D) is
useful in assessing hydration status, but not as useful in assessing glomerular function.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In
determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record.
Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - (answer) A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and decreased
contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor (C), a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. (D) is a
sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the
nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - (answer) A) Prevention of deformities.
Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent deformities (A) caused by
muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not used for (B). (C) is usually treated with medications,
particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed
exercise program is indicated.
A client is placed on a respirator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron)
0.04 mg/kg q12h IV is prescribed. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client?
A) Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
B) High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure.
ANSWERS
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which
assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
A) White blood count of 10,000 mm3.
B) Serum glucose of 115 mg/dl.
C) Purulent sputum.
D) Excessive hunger. - (answer) C) Purulent sputum.
Steroids cause immunosuppression, and a purulent sputum (C) is an indication of infection, so this
symptom is of greatest concern. Oral steroids may increase (A) and often cause (D). (B) may remain
normal, borderline, or increase while taking oral steroids.
The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding indicates the client
may have developed septic emboli?
A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
B) Bradycardia and bradypnea.
C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds.
D) 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. - (answer) A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing
a decrease in circulation to the hands (A) which may lead to gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal
findings, but do not indicate the development of septic emboli.
A 46-year-old female client is admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension.
Which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?
A) Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
B) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN).
C) Sedimentation rate.
D) Urine specific gravity. - (answer) A) Serum creatinine.
, EVOLVE HESI PHARM RN NEWEST 2024 VERSION 3 COMPLETE 55 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS
(B) is also an indicator of renal activity, but it can be affected by non-renal factors such as hypovolemia
and increased protein intake. (C) is a nonspecific test for acute or chronic inflammatory processes. (D) is
useful in assessing hydration status, but not as useful in assessing glomerular function.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In
determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record.
Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - (answer) A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and decreased
contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor (C), a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. (D) is a
sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the
nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - (answer) A) Prevention of deformities.
Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent deformities (A) caused by
muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not used for (B). (C) is usually treated with medications,
particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed
exercise program is indicated.
A client is placed on a respirator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron)
0.04 mg/kg q12h IV is prescribed. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client?
A) Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
B) High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure.
