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WGU D454 Adult Health III Practice Exam 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025

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WGU D454 Adult Health III Practice Exam 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025

Instelling
WGU D454 Adult Health III
Vak
WGU D454 Adult Health III

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

WGU D454 Adult Health III Practice
Exam 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025


1. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment
finding requires immediate attention?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min
C. Abdominal pain rated at 8/10
D. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
A high respiratory rate may indicate impending respiratory distress or
metabolic acidosis related to sepsis or fluid shifts, requiring prompt
intervention.

2. Which lab result is most concerning in a patient with chronic kidney
disease (CKD)?
A. Serum potassium 6.2 mEq/L

,B. Serum calcium 8.4 mg/dL
C. Serum creatinine 4.0 mg/dL
D. Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Elevated potassium increases risk for cardiac arrhythmias and requires
immediate intervention in CKD.

3. Which client is most at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis
(DVT)?
A. A client with a fractured wrist
B. A client with pneumonia on antibiotics
C. A postoperative hip replacement client
D. A client undergoing dialysis
Orthopedic surgery, especially involving the lower extremities, increases
DVT risk due to immobility and vascular injury.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is
expected?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Crackles in the lungs
Left-sided failure leads to pulmonary congestion, manifesting as crackles
and dyspnea.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis who develops confusion.
What is the priority intervention?

,A. Check serum albumin
B. Assess for ascites
C. Evaluate ammonia levels
D. Administer furosemide
Elevated ammonia contributes to hepatic encephalopathy and must be
addressed promptly.

6. Which instruction is most appropriate for a client with a new ileostomy?
A. "You will have soft formed stools."
B. "Stool will be liquid and continuous."
C. "Use laxatives if stool output decreases."
D. "You can eat anything you want."
Ileostomies bypass the colon, so the stool is typically liquid and frequent.

7. A nurse is teaching a patient with COPD about oxygen therapy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "I should use a non-rebreather mask for oxygen at home."
B. "I will use low-flow oxygen to avoid CO2 retention."
C. "I’ll turn up the oxygen if I feel breathless."
D. "I should use high-flow oxygen during exercise."
COPD patients require low-flow oxygen to prevent hypoventilation from
CO2 retention.

8. What is the best diet recommendation for a patient with nephrotic
syndrome?
A. High-sodium, high-protein

, B. High-protein, low-carbohydrate
C. Low-sodium, adequate-protein
D. Low-fat, low-protein
To reduce fluid retention and manage protein loss, a low-sodium,
adequate-protein diet is optimal.

9. Which assessment finding indicates peritonitis in a client with a
perforated ulcer?
A. Loose stools
B. Board-like abdomen and rebound tenderness
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
D. Nausea without vomiting
Peritonitis causes a rigid, tender abdomen due to inflammation and muscle
guarding.

10. What is the priority assessment after a thyroidectomy?
A. Assess for bradycardia
B. Monitor for stridor and hoarseness
C. Evaluate for constipation
D. Check blood glucose
Airway obstruction due to laryngeal nerve damage or hematoma is life-
threatening post-thyroidectomy.



11. A client receiving chemotherapy is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome.
What lab result should the nurse monitor first?

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Instelling
WGU D454 Adult Health III
Vak
WGU D454 Adult Health III

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Aantal pagina's
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