Adult Health II HESI Test Bank
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Cardiovascular (25 Questions)
Question 1
A client with acute myocardial infarction (MI) reports chest pain radiating to the jaw. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
• C: Administering oxygen improves myocardial oxygenation, reducing ischemia and pain
in acute MI. NGN clinical judgment: Prioritizing oxygenation addresses hypoxia, a life-
threatening issue, ensuring cardiac stability.
• A: Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation but is secondary to oxygenation, as it does not
address immediate hypoxia.
• B: An ECG confirms MI but is diagnostic, not therapeutic, and follows oxygenation.
• D: Notification is important but delayed until initial stabilization with oxygen.
Question 2
A client with heart failure has crackles and 2+ pitting edema. Which medication should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Metoprolol
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, reduces fluid overload, alleviating crackles and edema.
NGN clinical judgment: Addressing fluid excess prevents pulmonary edema, prioritizing
respiratory and hemodynamic stability.
, • A: Digoxin improves contractility but does not directly reduce fluid.
• C: Metoprolol reduces heart rate but is less urgent for fluid overload.
• D: Lisinopril reduces afterload but is secondary to diuresis.
Question 3
A client with atrial fibrillation has an INR of 1.2 while on warfarin. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Administer heparin
B. Increase the warfarin dose
C. Hold the warfarin dose
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• D: An INR of 1.2 is subtherapeutic (target 2.0–3.0), requiring provider adjustment. NGN
clinical judgment: Notification ensures safe anticoagulation, prioritizing bleeding/clotting
risk management.
• A: Heparin is not indicated for subtherapeutic INR without provider orders.
• B: Increasing warfarin requires a prescription to avoid bleeding risk.
• C: Holding warfarin may increase clotting risk without provider guidance.
Question 4
A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) has a temperature of 101°F. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Assess the surgical site
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Obtain blood cultures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Fever post-CABG may indicate wound infection; assessing the surgical site identifies
the source. NGN clinical judgment: Assessment guides infection management,
prioritizing postoperative complications.
• A: Acetaminophen treats fever but does not address the cause.
• C: Notification follows assessment to provide specific findings.
• D: Blood cultures are ordered after identifying potential infection sources.
Question 5
A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) reports intermittent claudication. Which instruction
should the nurse provide?
A. Elevate legs above heart level
B. Avoid walking to prevent pain
,C. Participate in a supervised walking program
D. Apply compression stockings
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
• C: A supervised walking program improves collateral circulation, reducing claudication
in PAD. NGN clinical judgment: Exercise promotes long-term vascular health,
prioritizing functional improvement.
• A: Elevation reduces arterial flow, worsening symptoms.
• B: Avoiding walking decreases circulation, exacerbating PAD.
• D: Compression stockings are for venous, not arterial, disorders.
Question 6
A client with an aortic aneurysm reports sudden severe back pain. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Assess vital signs
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Prepare for a CT scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Sudden severe back pain may indicate aneurysm rupture; assessing vital signs detects
instability (e.g., hypotension). NGN clinical judgment: Prioritizing assessment identifies
life-threatening emergencies, guiding intervention.
• A: Pain medication masks symptoms without addressing the cause.
• C: Notification follows vital sign assessment for accurate reporting.
• D: CT scan preparation is secondary to stabilizing the client.
Question 7
A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte should the nurse
monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, risking arrhythmias.
NGN clinical judgment: Monitoring potassium prevents cardiac complications,
prioritizing safety.
• A: Sodium may decrease but is less critical than potassium.
• C, D: Calcium and magnesium are not primarily affected by thiazides.
, Question 8
A client with cardiogenic shock is prescribed norepinephrine. Which parameter should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Urine output
D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
• A: Norepinephrine, a vasopressor, increases blood pressure in cardiogenic shock to
restore perfusion. NGN clinical judgment: Monitoring blood pressure ensures therapeutic
effect, prioritizing hemodynamic stability.
• B, C, D: Respiratory rate, urine output, and oxygen saturation are secondary to blood
pressure in assessing vasopressor response.
Question 9
A client post-angioplasty reports groin pain at the catheter site. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Apply a warm compress
B. Assess for hematoma
C. Administer morphine
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Groin pain post-angioplasty may indicate hematoma or bleeding; assessment identifies
complications. NGN clinical judgment: Prioritizing assessment prevents vascular
compromise, ensuring safety.
• A: Warm compresses may increase bleeding risk.
• C: Morphine masks symptoms without addressing the cause.
• D: Notification follows assessment for accurate reporting.
Question 10
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) reports shortness of breath. Which complication
should the nurse suspect?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Stroke
D. Peripheral artery occlusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
– Complete Exam with 100+ Verified
Questions and Rationalized Correct Answers
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Cardiovascular (25 Questions)
Question 1
A client with acute myocardial infarction (MI) reports chest pain radiating to the jaw. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
• C: Administering oxygen improves myocardial oxygenation, reducing ischemia and pain
in acute MI. NGN clinical judgment: Prioritizing oxygenation addresses hypoxia, a life-
threatening issue, ensuring cardiac stability.
• A: Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation but is secondary to oxygenation, as it does not
address immediate hypoxia.
• B: An ECG confirms MI but is diagnostic, not therapeutic, and follows oxygenation.
• D: Notification is important but delayed until initial stabilization with oxygen.
Question 2
A client with heart failure has crackles and 2+ pitting edema. Which medication should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Digoxin
B. Furosemide
C. Metoprolol
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, reduces fluid overload, alleviating crackles and edema.
NGN clinical judgment: Addressing fluid excess prevents pulmonary edema, prioritizing
respiratory and hemodynamic stability.
, • A: Digoxin improves contractility but does not directly reduce fluid.
• C: Metoprolol reduces heart rate but is less urgent for fluid overload.
• D: Lisinopril reduces afterload but is secondary to diuresis.
Question 3
A client with atrial fibrillation has an INR of 1.2 while on warfarin. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Administer heparin
B. Increase the warfarin dose
C. Hold the warfarin dose
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
• D: An INR of 1.2 is subtherapeutic (target 2.0–3.0), requiring provider adjustment. NGN
clinical judgment: Notification ensures safe anticoagulation, prioritizing bleeding/clotting
risk management.
• A: Heparin is not indicated for subtherapeutic INR without provider orders.
• B: Increasing warfarin requires a prescription to avoid bleeding risk.
• C: Holding warfarin may increase clotting risk without provider guidance.
Question 4
A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) has a temperature of 101°F. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Assess the surgical site
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Obtain blood cultures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Fever post-CABG may indicate wound infection; assessing the surgical site identifies
the source. NGN clinical judgment: Assessment guides infection management,
prioritizing postoperative complications.
• A: Acetaminophen treats fever but does not address the cause.
• C: Notification follows assessment to provide specific findings.
• D: Blood cultures are ordered after identifying potential infection sources.
Question 5
A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) reports intermittent claudication. Which instruction
should the nurse provide?
A. Elevate legs above heart level
B. Avoid walking to prevent pain
,C. Participate in a supervised walking program
D. Apply compression stockings
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
• C: A supervised walking program improves collateral circulation, reducing claudication
in PAD. NGN clinical judgment: Exercise promotes long-term vascular health,
prioritizing functional improvement.
• A: Elevation reduces arterial flow, worsening symptoms.
• B: Avoiding walking decreases circulation, exacerbating PAD.
• D: Compression stockings are for venous, not arterial, disorders.
Question 6
A client with an aortic aneurysm reports sudden severe back pain. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Assess vital signs
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Prepare for a CT scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Sudden severe back pain may indicate aneurysm rupture; assessing vital signs detects
instability (e.g., hypotension). NGN clinical judgment: Prioritizing assessment identifies
life-threatening emergencies, guiding intervention.
• A: Pain medication masks symptoms without addressing the cause.
• C: Notification follows vital sign assessment for accurate reporting.
• D: CT scan preparation is secondary to stabilizing the client.
Question 7
A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte should the nurse
monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, risking arrhythmias.
NGN clinical judgment: Monitoring potassium prevents cardiac complications,
prioritizing safety.
• A: Sodium may decrease but is less critical than potassium.
• C, D: Calcium and magnesium are not primarily affected by thiazides.
, Question 8
A client with cardiogenic shock is prescribed norepinephrine. Which parameter should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Urine output
D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
• A: Norepinephrine, a vasopressor, increases blood pressure in cardiogenic shock to
restore perfusion. NGN clinical judgment: Monitoring blood pressure ensures therapeutic
effect, prioritizing hemodynamic stability.
• B, C, D: Respiratory rate, urine output, and oxygen saturation are secondary to blood
pressure in assessing vasopressor response.
Question 9
A client post-angioplasty reports groin pain at the catheter site. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Apply a warm compress
B. Assess for hematoma
C. Administer morphine
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
• B: Groin pain post-angioplasty may indicate hematoma or bleeding; assessment identifies
complications. NGN clinical judgment: Prioritizing assessment prevents vascular
compromise, ensuring safety.
• A: Warm compresses may increase bleeding risk.
• C: Morphine masks symptoms without addressing the cause.
• D: Notification follows assessment for accurate reporting.
Question 10
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) reports shortness of breath. Which complication
should the nurse suspect?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Stroke
D. Peripheral artery occlusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
