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BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Practice Exam 2025 – Actual
Version 2 | Verified Questions
and Answers | 100% Correct |
Grade A – Nightingale College
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance
should the nurse monitor for?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to a risk
of hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent arrhythmias and
muscle weakness.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
a) INR
b) aPTT
c) Platelet count
d) Hemoglobin
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR (target 2–3 for atrial
fibrillation) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and minimize bleeding risk.
3. A nurse is administering insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. When should this
medication be given?
a) Immediately before a meal
b) 1 hour after a meal
c) At bedtime
d) 2 hours before a meal
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered immediately before or
within 15 minutes of a meal to control postprandial glucose spikes.
, 2
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What is a common side effect of
this medication?
a) Dry cough
b) Weight gain
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to bradykinin
accumulation, requiring patient education and monitoring.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary purpose of this
medication?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Anti-inflammatory effect
c) Mucolytic action
d) Antihistamine effect
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, causes bronchodilation, relieving acute
asthma symptoms by relaxing airway smooth muscles.
6. A client with a bacterial infection is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the nurse
teach the client?
a) Complete the full course
b) Stop if symptoms improve
c) Take with antacids
d) Avoid dairy products
Rationale: Completing the full course of amoxicillin prevents antibiotic resistance and
ensures eradication of the infection.
7. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. What is the expected
therapeutic outcome?
a) Increased red blood cell production
b) Reduced blood pressure
c) Improved renal function
d) Decreased potassium levels
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, increasing red blood cell production to
treat anemia in chronic kidney disease.
8. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which laboratory test is
essential to monitor?
a) Serum lithium levels
b) Blood glucose
c) Liver enzymes
d) Platelet count
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (0.6–1.2 mEq/L), requiring regular
serum level monitoring to prevent toxicity.
9. A client with pain is prescribed morphine. What is a priority nursing assessment?
a) Respiratory rate
b) Blood pressure
c) Heart rate
d) Temperature
, 3
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid, can cause respiratory depression, making respiratory
rate monitoring critical to ensure client safety.
10. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What should the nurse teach
the client to report?
a) Muscle pain
b) Weight gain
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Insomnia
Rationale: Muscle pain may indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect of
metformin, requiring immediate reporting.
11. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. What is a common side effect?
a) Extrapyramidal symptoms
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hypertension
Rationale: Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms
(e.g., tremors, rigidity) due to dopamine receptor blockade.
12. A client with a pulmonary embolism is prescribed heparin. Which laboratory value
should be monitored?
a) aPTT
b) INR
c) Hemoglobin
d) Platelet count
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via aPTT to ensure therapeutic
anticoagulation and minimize bleeding risk.
13. A client with depression is prescribed sertraline. How long does it typically take for
therapeutic effects?
a) 4–6 weeks
b) 1–2 days
c) 1–2 weeks
d) 8–12 weeks
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, requires 4–6 weeks for full antidepressant effects as
serotonin levels stabilize in the brain.
14. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte should the
nurse monitor?
a) Potassium
b) Sodium
c) Calcium
d) Magnesium
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia,
requiring close potassium level monitoring.
15. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is a common side
effect?
a) Gingival hyperplasia
b) Weight loss
c) Hypoglycemia
BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology
Practice Exam 2025 – Actual
Version 2 | Verified Questions
and Answers | 100% Correct |
Grade A – Nightingale College
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance
should the nurse monitor for?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, increases potassium excretion, leading to a risk
of hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent arrhythmias and
muscle weakness.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
a) INR
b) aPTT
c) Platelet count
d) Hemoglobin
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR (target 2–3 for atrial
fibrillation) to ensure therapeutic efficacy and minimize bleeding risk.
3. A nurse is administering insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. When should this
medication be given?
a) Immediately before a meal
b) 1 hour after a meal
c) At bedtime
d) 2 hours before a meal
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered immediately before or
within 15 minutes of a meal to control postprandial glucose spikes.
, 2
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What is a common side effect of
this medication?
a) Dry cough
b) Weight gain
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to bradykinin
accumulation, requiring patient education and monitoring.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary purpose of this
medication?
a) Bronchodilation
b) Anti-inflammatory effect
c) Mucolytic action
d) Antihistamine effect
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, causes bronchodilation, relieving acute
asthma symptoms by relaxing airway smooth muscles.
6. A client with a bacterial infection is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the nurse
teach the client?
a) Complete the full course
b) Stop if symptoms improve
c) Take with antacids
d) Avoid dairy products
Rationale: Completing the full course of amoxicillin prevents antibiotic resistance and
ensures eradication of the infection.
7. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. What is the expected
therapeutic outcome?
a) Increased red blood cell production
b) Reduced blood pressure
c) Improved renal function
d) Decreased potassium levels
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, increasing red blood cell production to
treat anemia in chronic kidney disease.
8. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which laboratory test is
essential to monitor?
a) Serum lithium levels
b) Blood glucose
c) Liver enzymes
d) Platelet count
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index (0.6–1.2 mEq/L), requiring regular
serum level monitoring to prevent toxicity.
9. A client with pain is prescribed morphine. What is a priority nursing assessment?
a) Respiratory rate
b) Blood pressure
c) Heart rate
d) Temperature
, 3
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid, can cause respiratory depression, making respiratory
rate monitoring critical to ensure client safety.
10. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What should the nurse teach
the client to report?
a) Muscle pain
b) Weight gain
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Insomnia
Rationale: Muscle pain may indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect of
metformin, requiring immediate reporting.
11. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. What is a common side effect?
a) Extrapyramidal symptoms
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hypertension
Rationale: Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms
(e.g., tremors, rigidity) due to dopamine receptor blockade.
12. A client with a pulmonary embolism is prescribed heparin. Which laboratory value
should be monitored?
a) aPTT
b) INR
c) Hemoglobin
d) Platelet count
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via aPTT to ensure therapeutic
anticoagulation and minimize bleeding risk.
13. A client with depression is prescribed sertraline. How long does it typically take for
therapeutic effects?
a) 4–6 weeks
b) 1–2 days
c) 1–2 weeks
d) 8–12 weeks
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, requires 4–6 weeks for full antidepressant effects as
serotonin levels stabilize in the brain.
14. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte should the
nurse monitor?
a) Potassium
b) Sodium
c) Calcium
d) Magnesium
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia,
requiring close potassium level monitoring.
15. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is a common side
effect?
a) Gingival hyperplasia
b) Weight loss
c) Hypoglycemia
