JEPPESEN PRIVATE PILOT END OF COURSE PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION

JEPPESEN PRIVATE PILOT END OF COURSE PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION 1) If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may - ANSWER deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency 2) Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2006. The next inspection will be due no later than - ANSWER September 30, 2008 3) In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? - ANSWER Operating limitations and Registration Certificate 4) At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level? - ANSWER 18,000 feet msl 5) When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot that - ANSWER maintain an altitude at or above the glide scope 6) Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly though a restricted area? - ANSWER With the controlling agency's authorization 7) What is the definition of a high-performance airplane - ANSWER An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. 8) When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilots personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? - ANSWER Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember 9) During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is - ANSWER 3 miles 10) In regard to privileges and limitation, a private pilot may - ANSWER not pay less than the pro rata share for the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees 11) Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - ANSWER An in-flight fire 12) At which airports is a fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized? - ANSWER Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dall Love Field 13) (Area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during Daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are - ANSWER 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally for clouds 14) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The Wind is from 090 at 16 knots and the true airspeed in 90 knots. - ANSWER 208 degrees 15) When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state - ANSWER whether the intend to fly VFR only 16) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct? - ANSWER 7 17) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)? - ANSWER 183 degrees 18) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 135 degrees, the magnetic heading is - ANSWER 225 degrees 19) (Area 2) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is - ANSWER 20 feet 20) If the magnetic bearing TO the station is 240 degrees, the magnetic heading is - ANSWER 195 degrees 21) How many Global Positioning Systems (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution? - ANSWER 4 22) What are the requirements to become a private pilot? - ANSWER You must be at least 17 years of age, complete specific training and flight time requirements described in the fars, pass a knowledge exam, and complete a practical test. 23) What are the requirements to obtain a third-class medical certificate? - ANSWER Pass a physical exam administered by an FAA-authorized aviation medical examiner. 24) What are the privileges associated with having a private pilot certificate? - ANSWER Being able to carry passengers and sharing expenses with other pilots 25) What are the categories of aircraft that can be flown with a private pilot certificate? - ANSWER Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air, and powered lift. 26) In order to remain current and act as a PIC you must - ANSWER Satisfactorily complete a flight review every 24 months and if carrying passengers, perform three takeoffs and landings in the same aircraft category and class within the preceding 90 days. 27) What rating is an essential requirement for most career flying jobs? - ANSWER Multi-Engine 28) Additional pilot certificates that can be added to the private pilot certificate are commercial pilot, airline transport pilot, and - ANSWER Certified flight instructor. 29) What is the purpose of the FAA? - ANSWER To govern commercial and general aviation 30) As part of the requirements to be able to fly solo as a student pilot, you must hold at least a - ANSWER third-class medical certificate. 31) How do variations in the atmospheric pressure affect your body when flying? - ANSWER Reduced pressure can cause pain in the ears, sinuses, and abdomen and can cause decompression sickness after scuba diving. 32) What are four ways to minimize the effects of motion sickness? - ANSWER Reduce stress and anxiety; schedule flights to avoid turbulent conditions; focus on objects outside the aircraft; open fresh air vents 33) How does fatigue affect pilot performance? - ANSWER Degrades concentration, impairs coordination, and decreases the ability to communicate 34) How can alcohol impair your ability to control your airplane? - ANSWER It reduces coordination, slows reflexes, and impairs vision. 35) If you are using a drug, what process should you follow before flying? - ANSWER Perform a self-assessment, obtain an aviation medical examiner's approval, and verify FAA approval of the drug. 36) What actions do you need to take to plan for practicing flight maneuvers and procedures? - ANSWER Determine and appropriate altitude and location for practice; determine the maneuver and procedure steps and appropriate airplane configurations using the pilot's operating handbook (POH) and your training materials. 37) What are steps in the positive exchange of flight controls procedure? - ANSWER 1. The pilot passing the control says, "You have the flight controls," and continues to fly the airplane. 2. The pilot taking control says, "I have the flight control," and moves the control stick to confirm. 3. The pilot passing the control says, "You have the flight controls," releases the flight controls, and visually verifies that the other pilot has the flight controls. 38) What are the elements of the passenger briefing that you should perform prior to the flight? - ANSWER How and when to fasten safety belts, air vent location and operation, fire extinguisher location and operation, egress and emergency operation of doors and windows, traffic and talking including use of headsets, your questions (passenger questions) 39) The condition necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and - ANSWER unstable, moist air. 40) What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? - ANSWER Continuous updraft. 41) The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with - ANSWER the start of precipitation 42) What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms? - ANSWER High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. 43) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? - ANSWER Dissipating. 44) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the - ANSWER mature stage. 45) Thunderstorms that generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are - ANSWER squall line thunderstorms. 46) A non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a - ANSWER squall line. 47) If thunderstorm activity is in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach? - ANSWER Wind-shear turbulence. 48) Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain? - ANSWER Level flight attitude. 49) Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm? - ANSWER Lightning. 50) Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is - ANSWER developing lift. 51) The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is - ANSWER heavy clean and slow. 52) Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to - ANSWER sink below the aircraft generating turbulence 53) When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to - ANSWER sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence. 54) The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a - ANSWER light quartering tailwind. 55) When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying - ANSWER above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point. 56) When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft - ANSWER above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. 57) When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? - ANSWER Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown. 58) How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? - ANSWER Outward, upward, and around each tip. 59) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather in Figure 12? - ANSWER KINK, KBOI, KLAX 60) For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the - ANSWER lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. 61) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK in Figure 12 is from - ANSWER 180° true at 4 knots. 62) What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK) in Figure 12? - ANSWER 110° at 12 knots, peak gusts 18 knots 63) The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed in Figure 12. This entry means - ANSWER rain began at 1835Z. 64) What are the current conditions depicted at Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW) in Figure 12? - ANSWER Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain. 65) The base and tops of an overcast layer reported by a pilot in Figure 14 are - ANSWER 7,200 feet MSL to 8,900 feet MSL. 66) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot in Figure 14 are - ANSWER 080° at 21 knots and -7°C. 67) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling? - ANSWER 505 feet AGL 68) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude in Figure 14 is - ANSWER light between 5,500 feet MST and 7,200 feet MSL. 69) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot in Figure 14 is - ANSWER light to moderate rime. 70) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM in Figure 15? - ANSWER 1800Z to 1800Z 71) In the TAF for KMEM, what does "SHRA" stand for in Figure 15? - ANSWER Rain showers are expected. 72) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be? - ANSWER 3 statute miles 73) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast in Figure 15? - ANSWER Variable direction at 6 knots. 74) In the TAF from KOKC in Figure 15, the "FM (FROM) Group" is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from - ANSWER 180° at 10 knots. 75) In the TAF from KOKC in Figure 15, the clear sky becomes - ANSWER overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z 76) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC in Figure 15? - ANSWER Greater than 6 statute miles. 77) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is - ANSWER cumulonimbus