Page | 1
EOR EXAM WOMEN'S HEALTH
EXAM 2025 BRAND NEW ACTUAL
EXAM WITH ANSWERS.
A 32 year-old female complains of severe irritability and emotional
lability accompanied by weight gain, breast
tenderness, and headache starting mid-cycle each month and
abating with the onset of menses. She has tried
relaxation therapy, exercise, dietary changes and over the
counter pharmacologic interventions with minimal relief of
her symptoms. Which of the following prescription medications is
the best choice to relieve her symptoms?
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C. Oral contraceptive pill (Ortho-novum 1/35)
D. Spironolactone (Aldactone) - correct answer -(u) A. Anxiolytics
have shown to be effective however its potential for dependency
makes it not the best choice.
(c) B. SSRI's provide symptom improvement for patients with
premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
(u) C. Studies have found little difference between women taking
a low dose birth control and women who do not
take pills; currently not recommended for PMS.
, Page | 2
(u) D. Spironolactone is used for cyclic edema, not the best
choice for PMS
A 26 year-old gravida 0 sexually active female presents to the
emergency room complaining of colicky pain in her
lower abdomen for the past 12 hours. She passed out earlier in
the day while trying to have a bowel movement. Her
last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She has noted vaginal
spotting over the last 24 hours. Vital signs show Temp
37 degrees C, BP 96/60mmHg, P 110, R 16, Oxygen Sat. 98%.
Abdominal exam is positive for distension and
tenderness. Bowel sounds are decreased. Pelvic exam shows
cervical motion and adnexal tenderness. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Appendicitis
C. Crohn's disease
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease - correct answer -(c) A. High
suspicion for ectopic pregnancy should be maintained when any
possible pregnant woman presents
with vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain.
(u) B. Appendicitis presents with nausea, vomiting and
periumbilical pain that moves to the right lower quadrant of
the abdomen.
, Page | 3
(u) C. Crohn's disease is more common in women and may
present with an acute abdomen. However, pelvic
examination would be normal.
(u) D. In pelvic inflammatory disease the temperature is usually
above 38 degrees C and pelvic pain usually
follows onset of cessation of menses.
A 46 year-old G4P4 African American female presents to the
clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual
flow over the past 6 months. Gynecological history includes
menarche age 12 and LMP 3 weeks prior. Pelvic exam
reveals a 14-week size, irregular uterus. Pelvic ultrasound shows
the presence of a large intramural fibroid with
normal endometrial lining. Which of the following is the most
appropriate management for this patient?
A. Oral contraceptive pill
B. Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD
C. Hysterectomy
D. Myomectomy - correct answer -(u) A. Oral contraceptive pills
do not treat the leiomyomas..
(u) B. A levonorgestrel-releasing IUD works for treatment of
menorrhagia related to multiple smaller leiomyomas
(c) C. Large leiomyomas are the most common indication for
hysterectomy in this age group.
, Page | 4
(u) D. Myomectomy is not an option for this large of an intramural
fibroid
. A 21 year-old obese woman complains of menstrual irregularity
since menarche at age 17. She is 5'5" and weighs
180 pounds. Exam of her face reveals excessive hair growth as
well as acne. Her abdomen shows midline hair
growth and truncal obesity. A previous pelvic ultrasound shows
many small fluid filled ovarian cysts bilaterally. Which
of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study to make
the initial diagnosis in this patient?
A. Prolactin level
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Free testosterone
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone - correct answer -(u) A. Prolactin
level will not be elevated in a patient with polycystic ovarian
syndrome.
(u) B. Endometrial hyperplasia occurs secondary to anovulation,
endometrial biopsy is mandatory for follow-up
management but is not indicated at diagnosis.
(c) C. Hyperandrogenism, as evidenced by elevated free
testosterone, supports the diagnosis of polycystic
ovarian syndrome.
(u) D. An increase of TSH is suggestive of hypothyroidism.
EOR EXAM WOMEN'S HEALTH
EXAM 2025 BRAND NEW ACTUAL
EXAM WITH ANSWERS.
A 32 year-old female complains of severe irritability and emotional
lability accompanied by weight gain, breast
tenderness, and headache starting mid-cycle each month and
abating with the onset of menses. She has tried
relaxation therapy, exercise, dietary changes and over the
counter pharmacologic interventions with minimal relief of
her symptoms. Which of the following prescription medications is
the best choice to relieve her symptoms?
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C. Oral contraceptive pill (Ortho-novum 1/35)
D. Spironolactone (Aldactone) - correct answer -(u) A. Anxiolytics
have shown to be effective however its potential for dependency
makes it not the best choice.
(c) B. SSRI's provide symptom improvement for patients with
premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
(u) C. Studies have found little difference between women taking
a low dose birth control and women who do not
take pills; currently not recommended for PMS.
, Page | 2
(u) D. Spironolactone is used for cyclic edema, not the best
choice for PMS
A 26 year-old gravida 0 sexually active female presents to the
emergency room complaining of colicky pain in her
lower abdomen for the past 12 hours. She passed out earlier in
the day while trying to have a bowel movement. Her
last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. She has noted vaginal
spotting over the last 24 hours. Vital signs show Temp
37 degrees C, BP 96/60mmHg, P 110, R 16, Oxygen Sat. 98%.
Abdominal exam is positive for distension and
tenderness. Bowel sounds are decreased. Pelvic exam shows
cervical motion and adnexal tenderness. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Appendicitis
C. Crohn's disease
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease - correct answer -(c) A. High
suspicion for ectopic pregnancy should be maintained when any
possible pregnant woman presents
with vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain.
(u) B. Appendicitis presents with nausea, vomiting and
periumbilical pain that moves to the right lower quadrant of
the abdomen.
, Page | 3
(u) C. Crohn's disease is more common in women and may
present with an acute abdomen. However, pelvic
examination would be normal.
(u) D. In pelvic inflammatory disease the temperature is usually
above 38 degrees C and pelvic pain usually
follows onset of cessation of menses.
A 46 year-old G4P4 African American female presents to the
clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual
flow over the past 6 months. Gynecological history includes
menarche age 12 and LMP 3 weeks prior. Pelvic exam
reveals a 14-week size, irregular uterus. Pelvic ultrasound shows
the presence of a large intramural fibroid with
normal endometrial lining. Which of the following is the most
appropriate management for this patient?
A. Oral contraceptive pill
B. Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD
C. Hysterectomy
D. Myomectomy - correct answer -(u) A. Oral contraceptive pills
do not treat the leiomyomas..
(u) B. A levonorgestrel-releasing IUD works for treatment of
menorrhagia related to multiple smaller leiomyomas
(c) C. Large leiomyomas are the most common indication for
hysterectomy in this age group.
, Page | 4
(u) D. Myomectomy is not an option for this large of an intramural
fibroid
. A 21 year-old obese woman complains of menstrual irregularity
since menarche at age 17. She is 5'5" and weighs
180 pounds. Exam of her face reveals excessive hair growth as
well as acne. Her abdomen shows midline hair
growth and truncal obesity. A previous pelvic ultrasound shows
many small fluid filled ovarian cysts bilaterally. Which
of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study to make
the initial diagnosis in this patient?
A. Prolactin level
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Free testosterone
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone - correct answer -(u) A. Prolactin
level will not be elevated in a patient with polycystic ovarian
syndrome.
(u) B. Endometrial hyperplasia occurs secondary to anovulation,
endometrial biopsy is mandatory for follow-up
management but is not indicated at diagnosis.
(c) C. Hyperandrogenism, as evidenced by elevated free
testosterone, supports the diagnosis of polycystic
ovarian syndrome.
(u) D. An increase of TSH is suggestive of hypothyroidism.
