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1. Most cost-effective HIV screening?
o A) Western blot
o B) ELISA
o C) VDRL
o D) Viral load
2. Best test to confirm HIV after ELISA?
o A) Western blot
o B) CD4 count
o C) HIV RNA PCR
o D) P24 antigen
3. Painless genital ulcer is characteristic of:
o A) Syphilis
o B) Gonorrhea
o C) Herpes simplex
o D) HPV
4. Positive HBsAg + anti-HBc IgM indicates:
o B) Acute hepatitis B infection
o A) Chronic carrier
, o C) Immunity post-vaccination
o D) Past resolved infection
5. Most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is:
o B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
6. CDC’s recommended first-line therapy for uncomplicated gonorrhea is:
o C) Ceftriaxone IM, single dose
7. Most cost-effective TB screening in primary care?
o A) PPD skin test
o B) IGRA blood test
8. A rising CRP is most useful for monitoring:
o C) Inflammatory disease course
Section 2: Neuropharmacology (Q9–16)
9. Cocaine acts by blocking reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
o C) Dopamine
10.Neurotransmitter deficient in Parkinson’s disease:
• C) Dopamine
11.Best long-term target drug class for generalized anxiety disorder:
• C) SSRIs (e.g., sertraline)
12.Most likely benzodiazepine withdrawal risk:
• A) Dependence and seizures
13.Antidepressant with sedation & weight gain:
• B) Mirtazapine
14.Best medication for acute psychosis with hallucinations:
, • A) Atypical antipsychotics (e.g., risperidone)
15.First-line ADHD medication which is NOT a stimulant:
• A) Atomoxetine
16.Antidote for opioid overdose causing respiratory depression?
• A) Naloxone
Section 3: Musculoskeletal (Q17–24)
17.Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is best diagnosed by:
• B) Pain with resisted wrist extension
18.True musculoskeletal exam practice is to examine:
• A) Unaffected side first, then affected side
19.Positive Phalen’s & Tinel’s tests indicate:
• A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
20.Symmetrical joint pain and morning stiffness >60 minutes suggests:
• B) Rheumatoid arthritis
21.Joint locking with meniscal tear is evaluated by:
• A) Joint line tenderness
22.First-line for acute non-traumatic low back pain:
• B) NSAIDs and activity
23.Pain, tenderness following soft tissue injury treating with RICE breaks down
to:
• C) Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
24.Aortic aneurysm risk factor includes:
• A) Smoking history
, Section 4: Vascular & Diagnostics (Q25–34)
25.Best first test for post-operative unilateral leg swelling:
• C) Venous Doppler ultrasound
26.In low-Wells score DVT and negative D-dimer → next step:
• B) Rule out DVT
27.Test used to assess pretest probability for DVT:
• B) Wells Criteria
28.Intermittent claudication that resolves with rest indicates:
• C) PAD
29.Chronic venous insufficiency presents as:
• C) Edema and hyperpigmentation
30.Pulsatile abdominal mass with bruit = likely:
• C) Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
31.Ankle-brachial index tests for severity of:
• C) Peripheral artery disease
32.Most common cause of macrocytic anemia with neurologic symptoms:
• B) Pernicious anemia
33.Elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) indicates:
• B) Heart failure
34.ECG finding of peaked T-waves indicates:
• B) Hyperkalemia
Section 5: Neuromuscular & Cranial Nerve (Q35–42)