NSG 6440 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual
Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed
100% Correct Detailed Answers
Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update
1. Which lab test confirms the diagnosis of HIV after an initial positive ELISA?
A. Rapid antigen test
B. Western blot (or immunoblot confirmation)
C. CBC with differential
D. CD4 count
Rationale: Western blot confirms positive ELISA findings.
2. Which of the following infections is most commonly associated with a painless
genital ulcer?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes simplex virus
Rationale: Primary syphilis typically presents with a painless chancre.
3. A patient tests positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and hepatitis B
core antibody (anti-HBc IgM). What does this indicate?
A. Past exposure, resolved infection
B. Acute infection
C. Vaccine immunity
D. Chronic carrier state
Rationale: HBsAg + anti-HBc IgM = acute HBV infection.
,4. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumophila
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is the leading bacterial cause of CAP.
5. What is the CDC’s recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated
gonorrhea in adults?
A. Cefixime PO + doxycycline
B. Azithromycin + metronidazole
C. Ceftriaxone IM 500 mg single dose
D. Ciprofloxacin PO
Rationale: Ceftriaxone IM is the CDC’s recommended monotherapy.
Neuropharmacology (Q6–Q10)
6. Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of which
neurotransmitter?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
Rationale: Dopamine deficiency affects the substantia nigra in PD.
7. Which class of medications is most appropriate for treating generalized anxiety
disorder?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Tricyclic antidepressants
, C. SSRIs (e.g., sertraline)
D. Typical antipsychotics
Rationale: SSRIs are first-line therapy for GAD.
8. A patient using benzodiazepines long-term is at greatest risk for:
A. Dependence and withdrawal seizures
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms
Rationale: Benzos are highly habit-forming and may cause withdrawal.
9. Which antidepressant is most associated with weight gain and sedation?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Mirtazapine
C. Bupropion
D. Venlafaxine
Rationale: Mirtazapine is sedating and increases appetite.
10. A 19-year-old presents with new-onset auditory hallucinations and agitation.
What medication class is indicated?
A. Atypical antipsychotics (e.g., risperidone)
B. Benzodiazepines
C. SSRI
D. Stimulants
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics are first-line for acute psychosis.
Musculoskeletal Conditions (Q11–Q15)
, 11. Lateral epicondylitis is best assessed by which maneuver?
A. Resisted wrist extension
B. Active shoulder abduction
C. Passive elbow flexion
D. Tinel’s sign
Rationale: Pain with resisted wrist extension = tennis elbow.
12. A positive Phalen’s test and Tinel’s sign indicate:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Cubital tunnel syndrome
C. Ulnar nerve palsy
D. Lateral epicondylitis
Rationale: These tests detect median nerve compression.
13. A 68-year-old with morning stiffness lasting >60 minutes and symmetrical joint
pain likely has:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Fibromyalgia
D. Gout
Rationale: RA presents with prolonged stiffness and symmetrical pain.
14. A patient reports knee locking and joint line tenderness. What diagnosis is
most likely?
A. Meniscal tear
B. ACL sprain
C. Patellofemoral syndrome
D. IT band syndrome
Rationale: Locking and tenderness at joint line suggest meniscus injury.
Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed
100% Correct Detailed Answers
Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update
1. Which lab test confirms the diagnosis of HIV after an initial positive ELISA?
A. Rapid antigen test
B. Western blot (or immunoblot confirmation)
C. CBC with differential
D. CD4 count
Rationale: Western blot confirms positive ELISA findings.
2. Which of the following infections is most commonly associated with a painless
genital ulcer?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes simplex virus
Rationale: Primary syphilis typically presents with a painless chancre.
3. A patient tests positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and hepatitis B
core antibody (anti-HBc IgM). What does this indicate?
A. Past exposure, resolved infection
B. Acute infection
C. Vaccine immunity
D. Chronic carrier state
Rationale: HBsAg + anti-HBc IgM = acute HBV infection.
,4. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Legionella pneumophila
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is the leading bacterial cause of CAP.
5. What is the CDC’s recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated
gonorrhea in adults?
A. Cefixime PO + doxycycline
B. Azithromycin + metronidazole
C. Ceftriaxone IM 500 mg single dose
D. Ciprofloxacin PO
Rationale: Ceftriaxone IM is the CDC’s recommended monotherapy.
Neuropharmacology (Q6–Q10)
6. Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of which
neurotransmitter?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Dopamine
D. Acetylcholine
Rationale: Dopamine deficiency affects the substantia nigra in PD.
7. Which class of medications is most appropriate for treating generalized anxiety
disorder?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Tricyclic antidepressants
, C. SSRIs (e.g., sertraline)
D. Typical antipsychotics
Rationale: SSRIs are first-line therapy for GAD.
8. A patient using benzodiazepines long-term is at greatest risk for:
A. Dependence and withdrawal seizures
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms
Rationale: Benzos are highly habit-forming and may cause withdrawal.
9. Which antidepressant is most associated with weight gain and sedation?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Mirtazapine
C. Bupropion
D. Venlafaxine
Rationale: Mirtazapine is sedating and increases appetite.
10. A 19-year-old presents with new-onset auditory hallucinations and agitation.
What medication class is indicated?
A. Atypical antipsychotics (e.g., risperidone)
B. Benzodiazepines
C. SSRI
D. Stimulants
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics are first-line for acute psychosis.
Musculoskeletal Conditions (Q11–Q15)
, 11. Lateral epicondylitis is best assessed by which maneuver?
A. Resisted wrist extension
B. Active shoulder abduction
C. Passive elbow flexion
D. Tinel’s sign
Rationale: Pain with resisted wrist extension = tennis elbow.
12. A positive Phalen’s test and Tinel’s sign indicate:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Cubital tunnel syndrome
C. Ulnar nerve palsy
D. Lateral epicondylitis
Rationale: These tests detect median nerve compression.
13. A 68-year-old with morning stiffness lasting >60 minutes and symmetrical joint
pain likely has:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Fibromyalgia
D. Gout
Rationale: RA presents with prolonged stiffness and symmetrical pain.
14. A patient reports knee locking and joint line tenderness. What diagnosis is
most likely?
A. Meniscal tear
B. ACL sprain
C. Patellofemoral syndrome
D. IT band syndrome
Rationale: Locking and tenderness at joint line suggest meniscus injury.
