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NCIA ARIZONA TEST PREP EXAM 2025 UPDATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW VISION)

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NCIA ARIZONA TEST PREP EXAM 2025 UPDATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW VISION)

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HESI CRITICAL EXAM 2025 UPDATE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW VISION)




A female client tells the nurse that her home pregnancy test is positive and her last menstrual

period (LMP) was February 14. The client wants to know the expected date of birth (EDB). How

should the nurse respond?

A. September 17.

B. December 17.

C. November 21.

D. October 21. - answersC. November 21

RATIONALE:

Using Nägele's rule to calculate EDB, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the

last normal menstrual period. The client's LMP is February 14, so less 3 months + 7 days is

November 21 (B) of the next year. (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.



Two hours after the vaginal delivery of a 7-pound, 3-ounce infant, a client's fundus is 3 cm

above the umbilicus, boggy, and located to the right of midline. Which action should the nurse

take first?

A. Massage the uterine fundus.

B. Palpate above the symphysis for the bladder.

C. Inspect the perineum for excessive bleeding.

D. Perform bi-manual massage. - answersB. Palpate above the symphysis for the bladder.

RATIONALE:

Two hours after giving birth, the uterus should be firm, in the midline, and below the
umbilicus.

,If the fundus is high, dextroverted and boggy, urinary retention is likely distending the
bladder,

so palpating for a full bladder above the symphysis (B) should be implemented first. (A, C, and

D) are implemented after the client voids or the bladder is emptied by catheterization.



The clinic nurse identifies an elevation in the results of the triple marker screening test for a
client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which action should the nurse prepare the
client

for?

A. Securing permission for pregnancy termination.

B. Repeating the triple marker test.

C. Counseling about possible fetal defects.

D. Preparing for other diagnostic testing. - answersD. Preparing for other diagnostic testing.

RATIONALE:

The triple marker screen measures maternal serum levels for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human

chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), and estriol, which screens for indications of possible fetal

defects. An elevated result may be a false indicator, so other tests are indicated (B). (A) is not

necessary or helpful. Elevated results warrant further testing with ultrasound or
amniocentesis

before initiating (C or D)



Prenatal diagnostic testing is recommended for a couple expecting their first child who have a
family history of congenital disorders. The couple tells the nurse that they are opposed to
abortion for religious reasons. Which concept should the nurse consider when responding to
this couple?

A. There is limited value in diagnostic testing if termination of pregnancy is not an option.

B. Many states legally require prenatal testing as a means of protecting the fetus

C. Diagnostic testing may indicate a fetal problem that could be treated prior to delivery.

,D. Counseling about advantages and disadvantages of termination should be helpful. -
answersC. Diagnostic testing may indicate a fetal problem that could be treated prior to
delivery

RATIONALE:

Although the couple is opposed to abortion, prenatal testing may reveal a fetal disorder that
is

treatable in utero or immediately after birth with favorable results (C). (A) is not an due to the

couple's stated opposition. Prenatal testing has value beyond termination (B) because it
provides

knowledge and time for the couple to prepare for various possibilities. Prenatal testing is

voluntary (D).



Which finding should the nurse identify as an early clinical manifestation of neonatal

encephalopathy related to hyperbilirubinemia?

A. Increased or unstable temperature.

B. Mental retardation.

C. Lethargy or irritability.

D. Rigid extension of all extremities. - answersC. Lethargy or irritability

RATIONALE:

Hyperbilirubinemia causes severe brain damage, encephalopathy (kernicterus), that results
from

the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in brain cells. Prodromal clinical manifestations of

central nervous system involvement include decreased activity, a loss of interest in feeding,
and

lethargy or irritability (C). Without treatment, progressive signs of neurologic damage include

(A, B, and D)



Which approach should the nurse use when preparing a toddler for a procedure?

, A. Plan a teaching session to last about 20 minutes.

B. Show equipment but prevent child from handling it.

C. Avoid asking the child to make choices.

D. Demonstrate the procedure using a doll. - answersD. Demonstrate the procedure using a
doll.

RATIONALE:

Imitation is one of the most distinguishing characteristics of toddler play, so demonstration of
a

procedure on a doll (A) enables a non-threatening, dramatic experience that can help prepare
the

toddler for the actual procedure. The primary developmental task in toddlerhood is acquiring
a

sense of autonomy, so giving choices whenever possible to a toddler is recommended, not
(B).

Since the toddler's attention span is short, teaching sessions should be brief (C) and can be

repeated for reinforcement. Showing the equipment before its use helps relieve anxiety, but
the

child should be allowed to handle some of the equipment (D) to prevent frustration and
alleviate

fear.



A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium implant. Which

nurse should be assigned to care for this client?

A. The nurse who is caring for another client receiving intracavitary radiation.

B. A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.

C. A nurse with oncology experience who may be pregnant.

D. The nurse who is caring for another client who has Clostridium difficile. - answersB. A nurse
with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.

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