HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
TEST BANK 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ||ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A physical therapist (PT) places a gait belt on a client and is assisting them with ambulation from
the bed to the chair. As they get up out of the bed, they report being dizzy and begin to fall. The
PT carefully allows them to fall back to the bed and notifies the primary nurse. Which written
documentation should the nurse put in the client's record?
A) Client experienced orthostatic hypotension when getting out of bed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait belt was used to
allow client to fall back onto the bed.
C) PT notified the primary nurse that the client could not ambulate at this time because of
dizziness.
D) Client had difficulty ambulating from the bed to the chair when accompanied by the PT,
variance report completed. - ANSWER-B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when
getting out of bed, and gait belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed.
Rationale: This documentation provides the factual data of the events that occurred. A)The
nurse is making an assumption that the dizziness was caused by orthostatic hypotension. C) Not
all the pertinent facts are included in this documentation.
D) A variance report should never be documented in the client's record.
A new nurse graduate is caring for a postoperative client with the following arterial blood gases
(ABGs): pH, 7.30; PCO2, 60 mm Hg; PO2, 80 mm Hg; bicarbonate, 24 mEq/L; and O2 saturation,
96%. Which of these actions by the new graduate is indicated?
A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
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, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
B) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
C) Request a prescription for sodium bicarbonate from the health care provider.
D) Inform the charge nurse that no changes in therapy are needed. - ANSWER-A) Encourage the
client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by CO2 retention and impaired chest expansion
secondary to anesthesia. The nurse takes steps to promote CO2 elimination, including
maintaining a patent airway and expanding the lungs through breathing techniques. O2 is not
indicated because Po2 and oxygen saturation are within the normal range. Sodium bicarbonate
is not indicated because the bicarbonate level is in the normal range; promoting excretion of
respiratory acids is the priority in respiratory acidosis. Post anesthesia, the client will need
interventions as described in A above or may progress to a state of somnolence and
unresponsiveness.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for
development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. - ANSWER-B) Increase intake of
soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale: To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily intake of
soluble fiber (B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm. Cholesterol intake (A) should be
limited to 180 mg/day or less. Intake of plant stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C).
Saturated fat (D) intake should be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement
by the nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
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, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - ANSWER-A) Prevention of deformities.
Rationale: Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent
deformities (A) caused by muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not used for (B). (C) is
usually treated with medications, particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory
drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed exercise program is indicated.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her
menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should
the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - ANSWER-B) Inability to get pregnant.
Rationale: Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common
symptoms of endometriosis, which is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the
dependent areas of the pelvic peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding
associated with endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common, nonspecific gynecological
complaints, the most common complaints of the client with endometriosis are pain and
infertility.
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function tests because of
recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which
finding should the nurse conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
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, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. - ANSWER-B) Nocturia.
Rationale: As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency, metabolic
waste products, including urea, creatinine, and other substances, such phenols, hormones,
electrolytes, accumulate in the blood. In the early stage of renal insufficiency, polyuria results
from the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine and contribute to nocturia (B). (A, C, and
D) are more common in the later stages of renal failure.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus
bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the
client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - ANSWER-A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale: Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate
and decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor (C), a loop diuretic, causes
bradycardia. (D) is a sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase
the heart rate.
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies.
Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
4|Page
HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
TEST BANK 250 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ||ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A physical therapist (PT) places a gait belt on a client and is assisting them with ambulation from
the bed to the chair. As they get up out of the bed, they report being dizzy and begin to fall. The
PT carefully allows them to fall back to the bed and notifies the primary nurse. Which written
documentation should the nurse put in the client's record?
A) Client experienced orthostatic hypotension when getting out of bed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait belt was used to
allow client to fall back onto the bed.
C) PT notified the primary nurse that the client could not ambulate at this time because of
dizziness.
D) Client had difficulty ambulating from the bed to the chair when accompanied by the PT,
variance report completed. - ANSWER-B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when
getting out of bed, and gait belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed.
Rationale: This documentation provides the factual data of the events that occurred. A)The
nurse is making an assumption that the dizziness was caused by orthostatic hypotension. C) Not
all the pertinent facts are included in this documentation.
D) A variance report should never be documented in the client's record.
A new nurse graduate is caring for a postoperative client with the following arterial blood gases
(ABGs): pH, 7.30; PCO2, 60 mm Hg; PO2, 80 mm Hg; bicarbonate, 24 mEq/L; and O2 saturation,
96%. Which of these actions by the new graduate is indicated?
A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
1|Page
, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
B) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
C) Request a prescription for sodium bicarbonate from the health care provider.
D) Inform the charge nurse that no changes in therapy are needed. - ANSWER-A) Encourage the
client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by CO2 retention and impaired chest expansion
secondary to anesthesia. The nurse takes steps to promote CO2 elimination, including
maintaining a patent airway and expanding the lungs through breathing techniques. O2 is not
indicated because Po2 and oxygen saturation are within the normal range. Sodium bicarbonate
is not indicated because the bicarbonate level is in the normal range; promoting excretion of
respiratory acids is the priority in respiratory acidosis. Post anesthesia, the client will need
interventions as described in A above or may progress to a state of somnolence and
unresponsiveness.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for
development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. - ANSWER-B) Increase intake of
soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale: To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily intake of
soluble fiber (B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm. Cholesterol intake (A) should be
limited to 180 mg/day or less. Intake of plant stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C).
Saturated fat (D) intake should be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement
by the nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
2|Page
, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. - ANSWER-A) Prevention of deformities.
Rationale: Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent
deformities (A) caused by muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not used for (B). (C) is
usually treated with medications, particularly those classified as non-steroidal antiinflammatory
drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed exercise program is indicated.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her
menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should
the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - ANSWER-B) Inability to get pregnant.
Rationale: Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common
symptoms of endometriosis, which is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the
dependent areas of the pelvic peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding
associated with endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common, nonspecific gynecological
complaints, the most common complaints of the client with endometriosis are pain and
infertility.
A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function tests because of
recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which
finding should the nurse conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
3|Page
, HESI RN MEDICAL SURGICAL EXAM 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. - ANSWER-B) Nocturia.
Rationale: As the glomerular filtration rate decreases in early renal insufficiency, metabolic
waste products, including urea, creatinine, and other substances, such phenols, hormones,
electrolytes, accumulate in the blood. In the early stage of renal insufficiency, polyuria results
from the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine and contribute to nocturia (B). (A, C, and
D) are more common in the later stages of renal failure.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus
bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the
client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
A) Propanolol (Inderal).
B) Captopril (Capoten).
C) Furosemide (Lasix).
D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - ANSWER-A) Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale: Inderal (A) is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate
and decreased contractility. Neither (B), an ACE inhibitor, nor (C), a loop diuretic, causes
bradycardia. (D) is a sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase
the heart rate.
A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies.
Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
4|Page
