ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam | 2025/2026
Edition
100 Actual Exam Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Graded A+ | Updated to the
Latest Clinical Standards
Introduction
This resource provides 100 verified and up-to-date questions from the ADEX CSCE
OSCE Exam, tailored to reflect the 2025/2026 exam version. Each item has been carefully
reviewed for accuracy and alignment with clinical expectations, ensuring candidates are
fully prepared for OSCE-style assessments and success in dental hygiene licensure.
Answer Format
All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green to enhance learning efficiency and
review speed.
ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam – 2025/2026 Edition
Question 1 (Multiple-Choice): A patient presents with a white patch on the buccal mucosa
that does not wipe off. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Candidiasis
B) Leukoplakia
C) Lichen planus
D) Aphthous ulcer
Rationale: Leukoplakia is a white patch that cannot be wiped off and requires further
evaluation for malignancy.
Question 2 (Multiple-Choice): A radiograph shows a radiopaque lesion at the apex of tooth
#8. What is the most likely cause?
A) Caries
B) Periapical pathology
C) Enamel hypoplasia
D) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Rationale: A radiopaque lesion at the apex suggests periapical pathology, such as a
granuloma or cyst.
Question 3 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-
blocker. Which oral side effect should be monitored?
A) Gingival hyperplasia
B) Xerostomia
C) Tooth discoloration
D) Oral candidiasis
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause dry mouth, increasing caries risk.
Question 4 (Fill-in-the-Blank): A patient’s blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. What is the
dental hygiene management recommendation?
Answer: Refer to a physician before treatment
,Rationale: Blood pressure above 160/100 indicates hypertension requiring medical
evaluation.
Question 5 (Multiple-Choice): A patient has generalized 4–5 mm probing depths with
bleeding. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Fluoride varnish
B) Scaling and root planing
C) Amalgam restoration
D) Sealant placement
Rationale: Scaling and root planing address periodontal disease with bleeding and moderate
probing depths.
Question 6 (Hot Spot): Identify the carious lesion on a bitewing radiograph of tooth #19.
Answer: Mesial surface, dentin involvement
Rationale: Bitewing radiographs detect interproximal caries, with dentin involvement
indicating advanced decay.
Question 7 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with diabetes reports frequent oral infections. What
is the likely cause?
A) Poor oral hygiene only
B) Impaired immune response
C) Excessive fluoride use
D) Allergic reaction
Rationale: Diabetes impairs immune function, increasing infection risk.
Question 8 (Multiple-Choice): What is the first action during a medical emergency
involving syncope in the dental chair?
A) Administer epinephrine
B) Place patient in Trendelenburg position
C) Provide oxygen at 10 L/min
D) Call 911 immediately
Rationale: Trendelenburg position improves cerebral blood flow in syncope.
Question 9 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic
for a dental infection. Which is appropriate?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Clindamycin
C) Penicillin VK
D) Cephalexin
Rationale: Clindamycin is safe for penicillin-allergic patients.
Question 10 (Drag-and-Drop): Sequence the steps for scaling and root planing.
Answer: 1. Assess periodontal status, 2. Administer local anesthesia, 3. Perform scaling, 4.
Perform root planing, 5. Provide post-op instructions
Rationale: This sequence ensures thorough periodontal treatment and patient education.
Question 11 (Multiple-Choice): A patient’s intraoral exam reveals a red, velvety lesion on
the tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Geographic tongue
B) Erythroplakia
, C) Candidiasis
D) Traumatic ulcer
Rationale: Erythroplakia is a red lesion with high malignant potential.
Question 12 (Multiple-Choice): A patient is taking warfarin. Which lab value should be
checked before invasive procedures?
A) Platelet count
B) INR
C) Hemoglobin
D) Blood glucose
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
Question 13 (Multiple-Choice): A panoramic radiograph shows a unilocular radiolucency
near tooth #27. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Ameloblastoma
B) Periapical cyst
C) Dentigerous cyst
D) Odontoma
Rationale: A unilocular radiolucency near a tooth apex suggests a periapical cyst.
Question 14 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with asthma experiences wheezing during
treatment. What is the first action?
A) Continue treatment
B) Administer albuterol
C) Call 911
D) Place in supine position
Rationale: Albuterol relieves acute asthma symptoms.
Question 15 (Extended Match): Match the periodontal instrument to its use:
A) Gracey curette – Root planing
B) Sickle scaler – Supragingival calculus removal
C) Explorer – Caries detection
D) Periodontal probe – Measure pocket depth
Rationale: Each instrument has a specific clinical purpose.
Question 16 (Multiple-Choice): A patient reports burning mouth syndrome. Which
condition should be ruled out?
A) Caries
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Periodontitis
D) Fluorosis
Rationale: Vitamin deficiencies can cause burning mouth symptoms.
Question 17 (Multiple-Choice): What is the recommended frequency for bitewing
radiographs in a high-caries-risk patient?
A) Every 2 years
B) Every 6–12 months
C) Every 3 years
D) Once every 5 years
Rationale: High-caries-risk patients require frequent monitoring.
Edition
100 Actual Exam Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Graded A+ | Updated to the
Latest Clinical Standards
Introduction
This resource provides 100 verified and up-to-date questions from the ADEX CSCE
OSCE Exam, tailored to reflect the 2025/2026 exam version. Each item has been carefully
reviewed for accuracy and alignment with clinical expectations, ensuring candidates are
fully prepared for OSCE-style assessments and success in dental hygiene licensure.
Answer Format
All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green to enhance learning efficiency and
review speed.
ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam – 2025/2026 Edition
Question 1 (Multiple-Choice): A patient presents with a white patch on the buccal mucosa
that does not wipe off. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Candidiasis
B) Leukoplakia
C) Lichen planus
D) Aphthous ulcer
Rationale: Leukoplakia is a white patch that cannot be wiped off and requires further
evaluation for malignancy.
Question 2 (Multiple-Choice): A radiograph shows a radiopaque lesion at the apex of tooth
#8. What is the most likely cause?
A) Caries
B) Periapical pathology
C) Enamel hypoplasia
D) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Rationale: A radiopaque lesion at the apex suggests periapical pathology, such as a
granuloma or cyst.
Question 3 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-
blocker. Which oral side effect should be monitored?
A) Gingival hyperplasia
B) Xerostomia
C) Tooth discoloration
D) Oral candidiasis
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause dry mouth, increasing caries risk.
Question 4 (Fill-in-the-Blank): A patient’s blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. What is the
dental hygiene management recommendation?
Answer: Refer to a physician before treatment
,Rationale: Blood pressure above 160/100 indicates hypertension requiring medical
evaluation.
Question 5 (Multiple-Choice): A patient has generalized 4–5 mm probing depths with
bleeding. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Fluoride varnish
B) Scaling and root planing
C) Amalgam restoration
D) Sealant placement
Rationale: Scaling and root planing address periodontal disease with bleeding and moderate
probing depths.
Question 6 (Hot Spot): Identify the carious lesion on a bitewing radiograph of tooth #19.
Answer: Mesial surface, dentin involvement
Rationale: Bitewing radiographs detect interproximal caries, with dentin involvement
indicating advanced decay.
Question 7 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with diabetes reports frequent oral infections. What
is the likely cause?
A) Poor oral hygiene only
B) Impaired immune response
C) Excessive fluoride use
D) Allergic reaction
Rationale: Diabetes impairs immune function, increasing infection risk.
Question 8 (Multiple-Choice): What is the first action during a medical emergency
involving syncope in the dental chair?
A) Administer epinephrine
B) Place patient in Trendelenburg position
C) Provide oxygen at 10 L/min
D) Call 911 immediately
Rationale: Trendelenburg position improves cerebral blood flow in syncope.
Question 9 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed an antibiotic
for a dental infection. Which is appropriate?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Clindamycin
C) Penicillin VK
D) Cephalexin
Rationale: Clindamycin is safe for penicillin-allergic patients.
Question 10 (Drag-and-Drop): Sequence the steps for scaling and root planing.
Answer: 1. Assess periodontal status, 2. Administer local anesthesia, 3. Perform scaling, 4.
Perform root planing, 5. Provide post-op instructions
Rationale: This sequence ensures thorough periodontal treatment and patient education.
Question 11 (Multiple-Choice): A patient’s intraoral exam reveals a red, velvety lesion on
the tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Geographic tongue
B) Erythroplakia
, C) Candidiasis
D) Traumatic ulcer
Rationale: Erythroplakia is a red lesion with high malignant potential.
Question 12 (Multiple-Choice): A patient is taking warfarin. Which lab value should be
checked before invasive procedures?
A) Platelet count
B) INR
C) Hemoglobin
D) Blood glucose
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
Question 13 (Multiple-Choice): A panoramic radiograph shows a unilocular radiolucency
near tooth #27. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Ameloblastoma
B) Periapical cyst
C) Dentigerous cyst
D) Odontoma
Rationale: A unilocular radiolucency near a tooth apex suggests a periapical cyst.
Question 14 (Multiple-Choice): A patient with asthma experiences wheezing during
treatment. What is the first action?
A) Continue treatment
B) Administer albuterol
C) Call 911
D) Place in supine position
Rationale: Albuterol relieves acute asthma symptoms.
Question 15 (Extended Match): Match the periodontal instrument to its use:
A) Gracey curette – Root planing
B) Sickle scaler – Supragingival calculus removal
C) Explorer – Caries detection
D) Periodontal probe – Measure pocket depth
Rationale: Each instrument has a specific clinical purpose.
Question 16 (Multiple-Choice): A patient reports burning mouth syndrome. Which
condition should be ruled out?
A) Caries
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
C) Periodontitis
D) Fluorosis
Rationale: Vitamin deficiencies can cause burning mouth symptoms.
Question 17 (Multiple-Choice): What is the recommended frequency for bitewing
radiographs in a high-caries-risk patient?
A) Every 2 years
B) Every 6–12 months
C) Every 3 years
D) Once every 5 years
Rationale: High-caries-risk patients require frequent monitoring.
