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NURS 432 Mental Health Nursing Test Bank 2025–2026 | NCLEX-Style Psych Questions + Detailed Rationales | A+ Graded Study Resource

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NURS 432 Mental Health Nursing Test Bank 2025–2026 – Top-Graded A+ Resource! This high-quality NCLEX-style test bank includes 10 advanced psychiatric nursing questions with detailed answers and rationales. Topics include therapeutic communication, suicide risk, psychotropic medications, legal-ethical care, and psychiatric disorders (schizophrenia, depression, bipolar). Aligned with Varcarolis’ Foundations of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing (9th Edition) and ideal for NCLEX, HESI, ATI, and clinical prep. Perfect for nursing students in Mental Health Nursing or Psychiatric Nursing courses. Instant download | Clinical-ready | Based on real exam formats Boost your scores & critical thinking with this trusted study guide!

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Mental Health Nursing Test Bank 2025–2026 | NCLEX

Psychiatric Questions + Answers with Rationales | A+

Psych Nursing Prep




QUESTION 1


A 62-year-old client is admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and started on IV ceftriaxone.

Ten minutes after initiating the infusion, the nurse notes the client is developing shortness of breath,

facial flushing, and generalized hives. Oxygen saturation has dropped from 97% to 89%. What is the

nurse’s priority action?


A. Stop the antibiotic infusion immediately

B. Administer IV diphenhydramine as prescribed

C. Notify the provider

D. Assess for a rash progression


✅ Correct Answer: A. Stop the antibiotic infusion immediately

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis. The first and most urgent action is to

,2

discontinue the suspected allergen (antibiotic). Subsequent actions include airway support,

administration of epinephrine and antihistamines, and provider notification.




✅ QUESTION 2


A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old post-operative client who underwent hip replacement surgery 6

hours ago. The client is confused, pulling at IV lines, and attempting to get out of bed. The nurse notes

oxygen saturation is 90%, respiratory rate is 28/min, and temperature is 101°F (38.3°C). What should

the nurse do first?


A. Apply soft wrist restraints

B. Notify the provider of possible infection

C. Raise the head of the bed and apply oxygen

D. Administer PRN antipyretic for fever


✅ Correct Answer: C. Raise the head of the bed and apply oxygen

Rationale: The client is at risk for hypoxia, a common cause of acute confusion in older adults.

Airway and breathing must be addressed before further assessments or provider notification. Oxygen

improves saturation and may reduce delirium.




✅ QUESTION 3


The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who was newly prescribed warfarin for

atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further

teaching?

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A. “I’ll avoid aspirin and NSAIDs unless my provider approves.”

B. “I’ll keep my intake of leafy greens consistent.”

C. “I’ll use a soft toothbrush and electric razor.”

D. “I’ll take extra doses if I miss one to keep my blood thin.”


✅ Correct Answer: D. “I’ll take extra doses if I miss one to keep my blood thin.”

Rationale: Warfarin dosing should never be doubled or adjusted independently by the client. Missed

doses should be managed according to provider guidance. This statement reflects a dangerous

misunderstanding.




✅ QUESTION 4


A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Morning labs reveal: potassium 3.0 mEq/L, digoxin

level 2.3 ng/mL. The client reports nausea and seeing halos around lights. What is the most

appropriate action by the nurse?


A. Hold the next dose of digoxin and notify the provider

B. Recheck potassium level in 4 hours

C. Encourage potassium-rich foods

D. Document the findings and continue the medication


✅ Correct Answer: A.

Rationale: The client is showing signs of digoxin toxicity (nausea, visual changes), and both digoxin

level and hypokalemia increase the risk. The nurse should withhold the medication and contact the

provider immediately.

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✅ QUESTION 5


A 36-year-old client presents to the ER with severe lower abdominal pain, vaginal spotting, and a

positive pregnancy test. Vital signs: BP 88/60 mmHg, HR 122, RR 28, SpO₂ 94%. What is the

priority nursing intervention?


A. Insert a large-bore IV catheter and begin fluid resuscitation

B. Prepare for transvaginal ultrasound

C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

D. Collect a urine sample for additional testing


✅ Correct Answer: A. Insert a large-bore IV catheter and begin fluid resuscitation

Rationale: These signs suggest a ruptured ectopic pregnancy and hypovolemic shock. The priority is

to stabilize circulation with fluids before diagnostic imaging or labs.




✅ QUESTION 6


A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions for C. difficile infection. Which of the following

actions by the nurse requires correction?


A. Wears a gown and gloves upon room entry

B. Uses alcohol-based hand sanitizer after client care

C. Disposes of PPE before exiting the room

D. Cleans reusable equipment with bleach-based solution

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