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MSN 620 FINAL EXAM LATEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED||
||BRANDNEW!!!||
A 35-year-old man with nasal congestion continues to use an
over-the-counter intranasal decongestant for four weeks. He
complains that he is dependant on the intranasal decongestant
spray and that he needs to use it more frequently to obtain relief.
Which of the following is the best approach to the management of
this patient?
1. Continue the nasal decongestant and introduce additional
intranasal corticosteroids
2. Discontinue the nasal decongestant straight away
3. Gradually discontinue the nasal decongestant and consider the
use of short-course oral corticosteroids during this withdrawal
period
4. Consent the patient for nasal surgery - ANSWER-3. Gradually
discontinue the nasal decongestant and consider the use of short-
course oral corticosteroids during this withdrawal period
A 28-year-old male patient with a history of asthma presents
complaining of eye discharge, morning matting, and redness. He
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denies eye itching, burning, or recent upper respiratory
symptoms. On examination, there is a bilateral diffuse
conjunctival injection, purulent discharge, and conjunctival
papillae. What is the most likely etiological agent for this patient's
presentation?
1. Neisseria gonorrhea
2. Staphylococcal aureus
3. Herpes simplex virus
4. House dust mite - ANSWER-2. Staphylococcal aureus
A 17-year-old female presents to the office with a severe sore
throat. The symptoms, which began four days ago, have become
unilateral and much worse over the last day. She has had fevers
of 101-103 F at home and was taking over-the-counter
medications but now cannot tolerate swallowing even liquid
ibuprofen. She has no trouble breathing, but reports that it is very
difficult to open her mouth because of pain in her jaw and the
clinician struggles to visualize her throat but notes unilateral
tonsillar swelling. The clinician also notes tender cervical
lymphadenopathy and some right-sided facial swelling but only
minimal tenderness to palpation over the right jaw. What is the
most appropriate next step in care?
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1. Referral to the emergency department for imaging and
aspiration
2. In-office aspiration of likely peritonsillar abscess
3. Topical benzocaine spray and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid twice
daily for seven day - ANSWER-1. Referral to the emergency
department for imaging and aspiration
A 38-year-old male patient complains of chronic nasal allergies.
He has used over-the-counter antihistamines without much
success. He believes he is allergic to ragweed but has had no
testing. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension
that is controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. He does not drink,
smoke, or use illicit drugs. He works in a relatively new office, but
he lives in a 60-year-old house with his family. They have carpets,
drapes, and a cat. Exam shows pale and boggy nasal mucosa
and cobblestoning of the posterior pharynx. Lungs are clear on
auscultation. Skin prick testing shows allergies to cat dander, dust
mites, ragweed, and tree pollen. Which of the following would be
an appropriate step to take?
1. Intranasal corticosteroids
2. Send carpet fiber for analysis
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3. Immunotherapy for cat dander
4. Wash and keep carpets and drapes - ANSWER-1. Intranasal
corticosteroids
A 25-year-old female, who is a smoker, presents to the outpatient
department with recurrent episodes of pain over both sides of the
face over the past three months. The pain occurs as a sudden
shooting pain which is severe in intensity and affects one side of
the face at a time. She describes it as electric shocks that last for
about 10 seconds and resolves by itself. She experiences this
symptom several times during the day and is sometimes triggered
by touching some particular spots on the face. She also
complains of intermittent numbness in the bilateral upper
extremities. Neurological examination shows sensory loss to
gross touch in the dorsal aspect of the right upper extremity. What
is the next step in the management of this patient?
1. Start carbamazepine therapy
2. Obtain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and
spine
3. Obtain X-ray of the right hand
MSN 620 FINAL EXAM LATEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+| ||PROFESSOR VERIFIED||
||BRANDNEW!!!||
A 35-year-old man with nasal congestion continues to use an
over-the-counter intranasal decongestant for four weeks. He
complains that he is dependant on the intranasal decongestant
spray and that he needs to use it more frequently to obtain relief.
Which of the following is the best approach to the management of
this patient?
1. Continue the nasal decongestant and introduce additional
intranasal corticosteroids
2. Discontinue the nasal decongestant straight away
3. Gradually discontinue the nasal decongestant and consider the
use of short-course oral corticosteroids during this withdrawal
period
4. Consent the patient for nasal surgery - ANSWER-3. Gradually
discontinue the nasal decongestant and consider the use of short-
course oral corticosteroids during this withdrawal period
A 28-year-old male patient with a history of asthma presents
complaining of eye discharge, morning matting, and redness. He
,2|Page
denies eye itching, burning, or recent upper respiratory
symptoms. On examination, there is a bilateral diffuse
conjunctival injection, purulent discharge, and conjunctival
papillae. What is the most likely etiological agent for this patient's
presentation?
1. Neisseria gonorrhea
2. Staphylococcal aureus
3. Herpes simplex virus
4. House dust mite - ANSWER-2. Staphylococcal aureus
A 17-year-old female presents to the office with a severe sore
throat. The symptoms, which began four days ago, have become
unilateral and much worse over the last day. She has had fevers
of 101-103 F at home and was taking over-the-counter
medications but now cannot tolerate swallowing even liquid
ibuprofen. She has no trouble breathing, but reports that it is very
difficult to open her mouth because of pain in her jaw and the
clinician struggles to visualize her throat but notes unilateral
tonsillar swelling. The clinician also notes tender cervical
lymphadenopathy and some right-sided facial swelling but only
minimal tenderness to palpation over the right jaw. What is the
most appropriate next step in care?
,3|Page
1. Referral to the emergency department for imaging and
aspiration
2. In-office aspiration of likely peritonsillar abscess
3. Topical benzocaine spray and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid twice
daily for seven day - ANSWER-1. Referral to the emergency
department for imaging and aspiration
A 38-year-old male patient complains of chronic nasal allergies.
He has used over-the-counter antihistamines without much
success. He believes he is allergic to ragweed but has had no
testing. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension
that is controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. He does not drink,
smoke, or use illicit drugs. He works in a relatively new office, but
he lives in a 60-year-old house with his family. They have carpets,
drapes, and a cat. Exam shows pale and boggy nasal mucosa
and cobblestoning of the posterior pharynx. Lungs are clear on
auscultation. Skin prick testing shows allergies to cat dander, dust
mites, ragweed, and tree pollen. Which of the following would be
an appropriate step to take?
1. Intranasal corticosteroids
2. Send carpet fiber for analysis
, 4|Page
3. Immunotherapy for cat dander
4. Wash and keep carpets and drapes - ANSWER-1. Intranasal
corticosteroids
A 25-year-old female, who is a smoker, presents to the outpatient
department with recurrent episodes of pain over both sides of the
face over the past three months. The pain occurs as a sudden
shooting pain which is severe in intensity and affects one side of
the face at a time. She describes it as electric shocks that last for
about 10 seconds and resolves by itself. She experiences this
symptom several times during the day and is sometimes triggered
by touching some particular spots on the face. She also
complains of intermittent numbness in the bilateral upper
extremities. Neurological examination shows sensory loss to
gross touch in the dorsal aspect of the right upper extremity. What
is the next step in the management of this patient?
1. Start carbamazepine therapy
2. Obtain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and
spine
3. Obtain X-ray of the right hand
