1
2025–2026 HESI Mental Health Nursing Test Bank |
400+ A+ Questions & Rationales – Guaranteed Pass |
HealthStudyPro
1.
A 23-year-old client with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the emergency
department by family members due to bizarre behavior. The client is talking to
himself, appears agitated, and refuses to eat, claiming that the food is poisoned. He
believes the healthcare team is part of a conspiracy. Which nursing intervention is
the priority at this time?
A. Administer an anxiolytic as prescribed.
B. Provide a quiet environment with minimal stimulation.
C. Assess for risk of harm to self or others. ✅
D. Attempt to challenge the client’s delusions with logic.
✅ Correct Answer: C. Assess for risk of harm to self or others.
,2
🧠 Rationale:
In any psychiatric emergency involving active psychosis, the nurse’s first priority
is to ensure safety—both of the client and others. Assessing the client for potential
risk of harm (e.g., suicidal or homicidal ideation, violent behavior, refusal of food
due to delusions) is critical. This step guides all other interventions. While
providing a calm environment and administering medication are also essential,
they come after establishing whether the client poses an immediate danger.
Challenging delusions can increase agitation and is contraindicated in acute
psychosis.
2.
A client with major depressive disorder is admitted after a suicide attempt
involving an overdose of sleeping pills. The client states, “It was a mistake. I didn’t
really mean to die.” What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “You sound like you regret your decision.”
B. “Can you explain what made you do that?”
C. “It’s important for us to keep you safe right now.” ✅
D. “Why would you take that many pills?”
,3
✅ Correct Answer: C. “It’s important for us to keep you safe right now.”
🧠 Rationale:
Clients who have attempted suicide—even if they express regret—require
continued safety-focused care. The nurse should convey nonjudgmental concern
and emphasize the safety plan. Option C provides reassurance while reinforcing
the nurse’s role in protecting the client. Option A acknowledges emotion but
doesn't address immediate risk. Option B may be appropriate later in therapy, but
not immediately. Option D can feel accusatory and is not therapeutic.
3.
A 42-year-old client with bipolar I disorder presents in a manic state. He is
hyperverbal, euphoric, spending excessive money, and refusing sleep. He insists on
leading group therapy and interrupts others. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Limit group participation to reduce stimulation. ✅
B. Encourage the client to join a creative activity.
C. Provide snacks to meet nutritional needs.
D. Praise the client’s confidence to build rapport.
✅ Correct Answer: A. Limit group participation to reduce stimulation.
, 4
🧠 Rationale:
Clients experiencing mania require an environment with low external stimulation
to reduce symptoms like impulsivity, aggression, or disorganization.
Overinvolvement in group settings may escalate behaviors and disrupt others’
therapy. Redirection and setting firm, consistent limits help maintain safety and
order. Nutrition and rapport are important but are not the immediate priority.
Encouraging stimulation (e.g., creativity) may worsen symptoms.
4.
A 29-year-old client is newly diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD). She reports washing her hands up to 40 times daily due to a fear of
contamination. Which response by the nurse demonstrates an appropriate
therapeutic approach?
A. “You should try to stop those rituals immediately.”
B. “Let’s set a goal to gradually reduce the number of hand washings.” ✅
C. “There’s nothing to worry about—your hands look clean.”
D. “Why are you so afraid of getting germs?”
2025–2026 HESI Mental Health Nursing Test Bank |
400+ A+ Questions & Rationales – Guaranteed Pass |
HealthStudyPro
1.
A 23-year-old client with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the emergency
department by family members due to bizarre behavior. The client is talking to
himself, appears agitated, and refuses to eat, claiming that the food is poisoned. He
believes the healthcare team is part of a conspiracy. Which nursing intervention is
the priority at this time?
A. Administer an anxiolytic as prescribed.
B. Provide a quiet environment with minimal stimulation.
C. Assess for risk of harm to self or others. ✅
D. Attempt to challenge the client’s delusions with logic.
✅ Correct Answer: C. Assess for risk of harm to self or others.
,2
🧠 Rationale:
In any psychiatric emergency involving active psychosis, the nurse’s first priority
is to ensure safety—both of the client and others. Assessing the client for potential
risk of harm (e.g., suicidal or homicidal ideation, violent behavior, refusal of food
due to delusions) is critical. This step guides all other interventions. While
providing a calm environment and administering medication are also essential,
they come after establishing whether the client poses an immediate danger.
Challenging delusions can increase agitation and is contraindicated in acute
psychosis.
2.
A client with major depressive disorder is admitted after a suicide attempt
involving an overdose of sleeping pills. The client states, “It was a mistake. I didn’t
really mean to die.” What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “You sound like you regret your decision.”
B. “Can you explain what made you do that?”
C. “It’s important for us to keep you safe right now.” ✅
D. “Why would you take that many pills?”
,3
✅ Correct Answer: C. “It’s important for us to keep you safe right now.”
🧠 Rationale:
Clients who have attempted suicide—even if they express regret—require
continued safety-focused care. The nurse should convey nonjudgmental concern
and emphasize the safety plan. Option C provides reassurance while reinforcing
the nurse’s role in protecting the client. Option A acknowledges emotion but
doesn't address immediate risk. Option B may be appropriate later in therapy, but
not immediately. Option D can feel accusatory and is not therapeutic.
3.
A 42-year-old client with bipolar I disorder presents in a manic state. He is
hyperverbal, euphoric, spending excessive money, and refusing sleep. He insists on
leading group therapy and interrupts others. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Limit group participation to reduce stimulation. ✅
B. Encourage the client to join a creative activity.
C. Provide snacks to meet nutritional needs.
D. Praise the client’s confidence to build rapport.
✅ Correct Answer: A. Limit group participation to reduce stimulation.
, 4
🧠 Rationale:
Clients experiencing mania require an environment with low external stimulation
to reduce symptoms like impulsivity, aggression, or disorganization.
Overinvolvement in group settings may escalate behaviors and disrupt others’
therapy. Redirection and setting firm, consistent limits help maintain safety and
order. Nutrition and rapport are important but are not the immediate priority.
Encouraging stimulation (e.g., creativity) may worsen symptoms.
4.
A 29-year-old client is newly diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD). She reports washing her hands up to 40 times daily due to a fear of
contamination. Which response by the nurse demonstrates an appropriate
therapeutic approach?
A. “You should try to stop those rituals immediately.”
B. “Let’s set a goal to gradually reduce the number of hand washings.” ✅
C. “There’s nothing to worry about—your hands look clean.”
D. “Why are you so afraid of getting germs?”
