HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
WITH COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!!
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy.
What is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWER-B.
Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just
before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time
for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high
dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
A) Loperamide (Imodium).
B) Probanthine (Propantheline).
C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).
D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil). - ANSWER-C.
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the
potential for salicylate toxicity when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic
acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not pose the degree of risk
of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-
year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's
questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. - ANSWER-C.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be
notified immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A and D) are not
needed, and (B) is inaccurate.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect
sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this client
A. Dopamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Diphenhydramine - ANSWER-C.
Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase
cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis.
Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B)
causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of nasal
congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the
treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client
with osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse
to provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness.
B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - ANSWER-
C.
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is
the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not
indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are
not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction
is most important for the nurse to teach this client?
A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - ANSWER-A.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of
pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be
counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not
a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to
discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative
prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth
defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during pregnancy,
(D) is not indicated.
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening
with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side
effect?
A) Change the time of the dose.
B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose.
C) Administer the dose with a snack.
D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. - ANSWER-C.
Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be
appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while
at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B)
would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum
level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions,
such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate
that the drug is performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin. - ANSWER-B.
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia
through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing
as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would
indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect
(D).
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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
WITH COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!!
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy.
What is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWER-B.
Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just
before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time
for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high
dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
A) Loperamide (Imodium).
B) Probanthine (Propantheline).
C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).
D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil). - ANSWER-C.
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the
potential for salicylate toxicity when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic
acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not pose the degree of risk
of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.
1|Page
, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-
year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's
questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. - ANSWER-C.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be
notified immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A and D) are not
needed, and (B) is inaccurate.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect
sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this client
A. Dopamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Diphenhydramine - ANSWER-C.
Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase
cardiac automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis.
Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B)
causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of nasal
congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the
treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client
with osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not
2|Page
, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse
to provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness.
B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - ANSWER-
C.
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is
the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not
indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are
not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction
is most important for the nurse to teach this client?
A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - ANSWER-A.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of
pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be
counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not
a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to
discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative
prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth
defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during pregnancy,
(D) is not indicated.
3|Page
, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening
with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side
effect?
A) Change the time of the dose.
B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose.
C) Administer the dose with a snack.
D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. - ANSWER-C.
Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be
appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while
at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B)
would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum
level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions,
such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate
that the drug is performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin. - ANSWER-B.
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia
through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing
as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would
indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect
(D).
4|Page
