ASA Aircraft Dispatcher (ADX) EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. What is the definition of V1 speed?
B. The speed beyond which takeoff should no longer be aborted.
V1 is the decision speed. After reaching V1, the aircraft must take off even
in the event of an engine failure.
2. Which publication contains standard instrument departure procedures
(SIDs)?
A. U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication.
SIDs are published in the Terminal Procedures Publication to provide
obstacle clearance and ATC routings.
3. What is the purpose of a SIGMET?
C. To advise of significant weather hazards affecting all aircraft.
SIGMETs are warnings for weather hazards such as severe turbulence or
icing that are potentially dangerous for all aircraft.
4. What does a METAR report indicate?
A. Current surface weather at a specific location.
METARs are aviation routine weather reports issued at hourly intervals.
5. When is an alternate airport required in a dispatch release for domestic
operations?
C. If weather conditions forecasted at the destination are below specified
, minima.
14 CFR Part 121 requires an alternate if the forecast is below 1-2-3 rule: 1
hour before/after ETA, less than 2,000 ft ceiling or 3 SM visibility.
6. What does a NOTAM D provide?
A. Information concerning facilities, services, and procedures.
NOTAM Ds affect airport operations, including lighting, runway closures,
and other aeronautical facilities.
7. What is the definition of a microburst?
C. A small-scale intense downdraft.
Microbursts are localized, hazardous downdrafts that can cause severe
wind shear near airports.
8. What is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL under Part
91?
B. 250 knots.
Regulations limit aircraft to 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL to reduce risk
of midair collisions.
9. What document outlines dispatch release requirements for domestic
carriers?
C. 14 CFR Part 121.
Part 121 governs operations for domestic, flag, and supplemental air
carriers, including dispatch procedures.
10.Which weather chart would be most helpful to determine the potential for
turbulence at FL350?
B. Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
, High-level significant weather charts show jet streams, turbulence, and
icing above 24,000 ft.
11.What does the symbol “RAB35” on a METAR mean?
C. Rain began at 35 minutes past the hour.
METARs report the beginning and end of precipitation in minutes past the
hour.
12.What is the definition of Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?
B. The maximum weight authorized for the start of the takeoff roll.
MTOW is the structural or performance limit for safe takeoff.
13.What is a conditional clearance in an ATC instruction?
C. A clearance that becomes effective when a specified condition is met.
Conditional clearances depend on specific events, like another aircraft
passing.
14.Which types of icing are reported in a PIREP as “moderate” icing?
C. The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become
potentially hazardous.
Moderate icing requires immediate attention and use of anti-icing/deicing
systems.
15.When should a dispatcher issue an amended dispatch release?
B. When weather or other conditions at the destination change
significantly.
Changes that affect the original flight plan or safety require an
amendment.
, 16.What are the basic components of an aircraft's center of gravity (CG)
calculation?
A. Weight and moment arm.
CG is determined by dividing the total moment by the total weight.
17.What does a TAF provide?
C. A forecast of weather conditions at an airport.
TAFs (Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts) are valid for 24–30 hours, issued
four times daily.
18.What is the time validity for a standard briefing from Flight Service?
A. 1 to 2 hours prior to departure.
Standard briefings are most effective if used shortly before departure.
19.What type of NOTAM is used for GPS outages?
B. FDC NOTAM.
FDC (Flight Data Center) NOTAMs include instrument approach changes
and GPS outages.
20.What is indicated when a METAR reads "R17L/0600FT"?
A. Runway 17L visual range is 600 feet.
RVR reports help determine landing minimums, especially in low visibility.
21.What is the purpose of the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?
B. To specify equipment that may be inoperative and still allow safe flight.
The MEL allows dispatchers and pilots to operate aircraft with certain
non-critical inoperative equipment.
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. What is the definition of V1 speed?
B. The speed beyond which takeoff should no longer be aborted.
V1 is the decision speed. After reaching V1, the aircraft must take off even
in the event of an engine failure.
2. Which publication contains standard instrument departure procedures
(SIDs)?
A. U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication.
SIDs are published in the Terminal Procedures Publication to provide
obstacle clearance and ATC routings.
3. What is the purpose of a SIGMET?
C. To advise of significant weather hazards affecting all aircraft.
SIGMETs are warnings for weather hazards such as severe turbulence or
icing that are potentially dangerous for all aircraft.
4. What does a METAR report indicate?
A. Current surface weather at a specific location.
METARs are aviation routine weather reports issued at hourly intervals.
5. When is an alternate airport required in a dispatch release for domestic
operations?
C. If weather conditions forecasted at the destination are below specified
, minima.
14 CFR Part 121 requires an alternate if the forecast is below 1-2-3 rule: 1
hour before/after ETA, less than 2,000 ft ceiling or 3 SM visibility.
6. What does a NOTAM D provide?
A. Information concerning facilities, services, and procedures.
NOTAM Ds affect airport operations, including lighting, runway closures,
and other aeronautical facilities.
7. What is the definition of a microburst?
C. A small-scale intense downdraft.
Microbursts are localized, hazardous downdrafts that can cause severe
wind shear near airports.
8. What is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL under Part
91?
B. 250 knots.
Regulations limit aircraft to 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL to reduce risk
of midair collisions.
9. What document outlines dispatch release requirements for domestic
carriers?
C. 14 CFR Part 121.
Part 121 governs operations for domestic, flag, and supplemental air
carriers, including dispatch procedures.
10.Which weather chart would be most helpful to determine the potential for
turbulence at FL350?
B. Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
, High-level significant weather charts show jet streams, turbulence, and
icing above 24,000 ft.
11.What does the symbol “RAB35” on a METAR mean?
C. Rain began at 35 minutes past the hour.
METARs report the beginning and end of precipitation in minutes past the
hour.
12.What is the definition of Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?
B. The maximum weight authorized for the start of the takeoff roll.
MTOW is the structural or performance limit for safe takeoff.
13.What is a conditional clearance in an ATC instruction?
C. A clearance that becomes effective when a specified condition is met.
Conditional clearances depend on specific events, like another aircraft
passing.
14.Which types of icing are reported in a PIREP as “moderate” icing?
C. The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become
potentially hazardous.
Moderate icing requires immediate attention and use of anti-icing/deicing
systems.
15.When should a dispatcher issue an amended dispatch release?
B. When weather or other conditions at the destination change
significantly.
Changes that affect the original flight plan or safety require an
amendment.
, 16.What are the basic components of an aircraft's center of gravity (CG)
calculation?
A. Weight and moment arm.
CG is determined by dividing the total moment by the total weight.
17.What does a TAF provide?
C. A forecast of weather conditions at an airport.
TAFs (Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts) are valid for 24–30 hours, issued
four times daily.
18.What is the time validity for a standard briefing from Flight Service?
A. 1 to 2 hours prior to departure.
Standard briefings are most effective if used shortly before departure.
19.What type of NOTAM is used for GPS outages?
B. FDC NOTAM.
FDC (Flight Data Center) NOTAMs include instrument approach changes
and GPS outages.
20.What is indicated when a METAR reads "R17L/0600FT"?
A. Runway 17L visual range is 600 feet.
RVR reports help determine landing minimums, especially in low visibility.
21.What is the purpose of the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?
B. To specify equipment that may be inoperative and still allow safe flight.
The MEL allows dispatchers and pilots to operate aircraft with certain
non-critical inoperative equipment.
