ATC Terminal Academy Cumulative Test Practice 2024-
2025 Guide
1. What is the purpose of the training To cultivate a positive learning environment
team?
2. OTJ Familiarization (OFJ) hours are Monitoring an operational position
hours spent
3. The maximum number of OJT hours Target time
established to achieve certification
4. Who is responsible for setting mini- Facilities
mum certification time?
5. Prior to being assigned OJTI duties, Complete Basic OJTI Techniques Course
the selected individual must
6. Training teams are established by Operations Supervisor (OS)
the trainee's
7. One of the responsibilities of the Meet at least monthly to discuss the trainee's
training team is to progress
8. Performance Assessments are con- Every calendar month
ducted at least
9. Training which reinforces, enhances Skill enhancement
or improves an individual's skills is
called Training
10. The recommendation of whether or Training review process
NOT training should be continued is
made to the ATM during the
11. The FAA form used by OJTIs and Op- 3120-25
erations Supervisors to record the
, ATC Terminal Academy Cumulative Test Practice 2024-
2025 Guide
performance and progress of the
trainee is Form
12. The FAA form used to record the 3120-1
results and the completion of train-
ing requirements for qualification
courses, proficiency training, and
other Agency-approved courses is
Form
13. The trainee responsibilities (3) -be physically and mentally prepared to receive OJT
-Document OJT hours
-Be an active participant in the training
14. Who does the trainee advise of any OS
circumstances that might impede
training progress?
15. In Block 4 of FAA Form 3120-25, the MVFR
weather is described as VFR, ,
IFR or Other
16. Who uses the Satisfactory, Needs Operations Supervisor
Improvement, and Unsatisfactory
columns in Block 11 of FAA Form
3120-25?
17. The time entered in the Time section UTC
of FAA Form 7230-4 will be in
time.
18. The letter "E" in the left-hand margin Equipment malfunction or restored to service
of FAA Form 7230-4 denotes an
, ATC Terminal Academy Cumulative Test Practice 2024-
2025 Guide
19. Which FAA form is used for a daily 7230-4
record to document facility opera-
tions?
20. The Training Team must facilitate Continuously assessing progress
training by
21. On FAA Form 3120-25, what indi- The employees signature in block 14
cates that the report was discussed
with the employee?
22. The acronym when used on FAA WCLC
Form 7230-4 indicates that the re-
view of the watch checklist was com-
pleted.
23. All helicopters are categorized as CAT I
CAT because they are pro-
peller-driven aircraft.
24. What are the wake categories of air- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I
craft?
25. List CAT I performance Characteris- - Speed 100-160kt
tics - Altitude <= 10,000 ft
- Climb 1,000ft/min or less
- CWT I
26. List CAT II performance characteris- - Speed 160-250kt
tics. - Altitude <= FL240
- Climb 1,000-2,000 ft/min
- CWT I
27.
, List CAT III performance characteris- - Speed 300-550kt
tics. - Altitude <= FL450
- Climb 2,000-4,000ft/min
- All CWT categories (A-I)
28. Forward slant vertical stabilizer What is a prominent identification feature of the
M20P?
29. DC10 Which aircraft has
-3 Turbojet engines
-Has Windows
30. C172 Which aircraft is
- High Wing
- Single Prop(non turbo)
- Fixed Landing gear
- Conventional tail
31. PAY3 Which aircraft
- T-tail
- Low wing
- 2 turbo prop
- Square windows
- Wing tip gas tanks
- Pointy nose
32. What are the three basic types of Reciprocating, turboprop and turbojet
engines found on aircraft today?
33. The three basic types of landing gear Tricycle gear, conventional gear and tandem gear
2025 Guide
1. What is the purpose of the training To cultivate a positive learning environment
team?
2. OTJ Familiarization (OFJ) hours are Monitoring an operational position
hours spent
3. The maximum number of OJT hours Target time
established to achieve certification
4. Who is responsible for setting mini- Facilities
mum certification time?
5. Prior to being assigned OJTI duties, Complete Basic OJTI Techniques Course
the selected individual must
6. Training teams are established by Operations Supervisor (OS)
the trainee's
7. One of the responsibilities of the Meet at least monthly to discuss the trainee's
training team is to progress
8. Performance Assessments are con- Every calendar month
ducted at least
9. Training which reinforces, enhances Skill enhancement
or improves an individual's skills is
called Training
10. The recommendation of whether or Training review process
NOT training should be continued is
made to the ATM during the
11. The FAA form used by OJTIs and Op- 3120-25
erations Supervisors to record the
, ATC Terminal Academy Cumulative Test Practice 2024-
2025 Guide
performance and progress of the
trainee is Form
12. The FAA form used to record the 3120-1
results and the completion of train-
ing requirements for qualification
courses, proficiency training, and
other Agency-approved courses is
Form
13. The trainee responsibilities (3) -be physically and mentally prepared to receive OJT
-Document OJT hours
-Be an active participant in the training
14. Who does the trainee advise of any OS
circumstances that might impede
training progress?
15. In Block 4 of FAA Form 3120-25, the MVFR
weather is described as VFR, ,
IFR or Other
16. Who uses the Satisfactory, Needs Operations Supervisor
Improvement, and Unsatisfactory
columns in Block 11 of FAA Form
3120-25?
17. The time entered in the Time section UTC
of FAA Form 7230-4 will be in
time.
18. The letter "E" in the left-hand margin Equipment malfunction or restored to service
of FAA Form 7230-4 denotes an
, ATC Terminal Academy Cumulative Test Practice 2024-
2025 Guide
19. Which FAA form is used for a daily 7230-4
record to document facility opera-
tions?
20. The Training Team must facilitate Continuously assessing progress
training by
21. On FAA Form 3120-25, what indi- The employees signature in block 14
cates that the report was discussed
with the employee?
22. The acronym when used on FAA WCLC
Form 7230-4 indicates that the re-
view of the watch checklist was com-
pleted.
23. All helicopters are categorized as CAT I
CAT because they are pro-
peller-driven aircraft.
24. What are the wake categories of air- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I
craft?
25. List CAT I performance Characteris- - Speed 100-160kt
tics - Altitude <= 10,000 ft
- Climb 1,000ft/min or less
- CWT I
26. List CAT II performance characteris- - Speed 160-250kt
tics. - Altitude <= FL240
- Climb 1,000-2,000 ft/min
- CWT I
27.
, List CAT III performance characteris- - Speed 300-550kt
tics. - Altitude <= FL450
- Climb 2,000-4,000ft/min
- All CWT categories (A-I)
28. Forward slant vertical stabilizer What is a prominent identification feature of the
M20P?
29. DC10 Which aircraft has
-3 Turbojet engines
-Has Windows
30. C172 Which aircraft is
- High Wing
- Single Prop(non turbo)
- Fixed Landing gear
- Conventional tail
31. PAY3 Which aircraft
- T-tail
- Low wing
- 2 turbo prop
- Square windows
- Wing tip gas tanks
- Pointy nose
32. What are the three basic types of Reciprocating, turboprop and turbojet
engines found on aircraft today?
33. The three basic types of landing gear Tricycle gear, conventional gear and tandem gear
