HESI NCLEX PN Practice Rated A+ 2025

HESI NCLEX PN Practice Rated A+ 2025 741. The nurse reinforces home care instructions to the parents of a child hospitalized with pertussis. The child is in the convalescent stage and is being prepared for discharge. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "We need to encourage adequate fluid intake." 2. "Coughing spells may be triggered by dust or smoke." 3. "We need to maintain respiratory precautions and a quiet environment for at least 2 weeks." 4. "Good hand-washing techniques need to be instituted to prevent spreading the disease to others." 741. 3 Rationale: Pertussis is transmitted by direct contact or respiratory droplets from coughing. The communicable period occurs primarily during the catarrhal stage. Respiratory precautions are not required during the convalescent phase. Options 1, 2, and 4 are components of home care instructions. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, need for further teaching. These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Options 1 and 4 can be easily eliminated because they are general interventions associated with convalescence. Knowing that coughing spells are associated with pertussis will assist in directing you to the correct option from the remaining options. In addition, a 2-week period of respiratory precautions is not required. Review: home care instructions for the child with pertussis. Level of Cognitive Ability: Evaluating Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Evaluation Content Area: Child Health: Infectious and Communicable Diseases Priority Concepts: Gas Exchange, Infection Reference(s): Hockenberry, Wilson (2013), pp. 428, 653-654. 742. A client enters the emergency department confused, twitching, and having seizures. His family states he recently was placed on corticosteroids for arthritis and was feeling better and exercising daily. Upon assessment, he has flushed skin, dry mucous membranes, an elevated temperature, and poor skin turgor. His serum sodium level is 172 mEq/L. Which interventions would the health care provider likely prescribe? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor the vital signs. 2. Monitor intake and output. 3. Increase water intake orally. 4. Monitor the electrolyte levels. 5. Provide a sodium-reduced diet. 6. Administer sodium replacements. 742. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Hypernatremia is described as having a serum sodium level that exceeds 145 mEq/L. Signs and symptoms would include dry mucous membranes, loss of skin turgor, thirst, flushed skin, elevated temperature, oliguria, muscle twitching, fatigue, confusion, and seizures. Interventions include monitoring fluid balance, monitoring vital signs, reducing dietary intake of sodium, monitoring electrolyte levels, and increasing oral intake of water. Sodium replacement therapy would not be prescribed for a client with hypernatremia. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a sodium level of 172 mEq/L. Knowledge that this level is elevated and knowledge of the treatment for hyperkalemia will direct you to the correct options. Review: hypernatremia. Level of Cognitive Ability: Analyzing Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Planning Content Area: Fundamental Skills: Fluids & Electrolytes Priority Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Reference(s): deWit, Kumagai (2013), pp. 41-42. 743. The nurse is monitoring a client receiving glipizide (Glucotrol). Which outcome indicates an ineffective response from the medication? 1. A decrease in polyuria 2. A decrease in polyphagia 3. A fasting plasma glucose of 100 mg/dL 4. A glycosylated hemoglobin level of 12% 743. 4 Rationale: Glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral hypoglycemic agent administered to decrease the serum glucose level and the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. Therefore, a decrease in both polyuria and polyphagia would indicate a therapeutic response. Laboratory values are also used to monitor a client's response to treatment. A fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within normal limits. However, glycosylated hemoglobin of 12% indicates poor glycemic control. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an ineffective response to the medication. Recalling that glipizide is an oral hypoglycemic agent tells you to look for an option that would indicate hyperglycemia (lack of response to the medication). Options 1 and 2 are comparable or alike options and are eliminated first. Next, eliminate option 3 because it is a normal blood glucose level. Review: glipizide (Glucotrol). Level of Cognitive Ability: Evaluating Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Evaluation Content Area: Pharmacology: Endocrine Medications Priority Concepts: Adherence, Glucose Regulation Reference(s): deWit, Kumagai (2013), pp. 827, 862. 744. The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfisoxazole. Which should be included in the plan of care for instructions? 1. Maintain a high fluid intake. 2. Discontinue the medication when feeling better. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response. 744. 1 Rationale: Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Some forms of sulfisoxazole cause the urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the health care provider. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, instructions for a client taking a sulfonamide. General principles related to medication administration will assist in eliminating options 2 and 4. Options 2 and 4 are also comparable or alike options. Next, it is necessary to know that the client should maintain a high fluid intake. Review: sulfisoxazole. Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Teaching and Learning Content Area: Pharmacology: Renal and Urinary Medications Priority Concepts: Client Education, Elimination Reference(s): deWit, Kumagai (2013), p. 745. Before administering an intermittent tube feeding through a nasogastric tube, the nurse checks for gastric residual volume. Which is the best rationale for checking gastric residual volume before administering the tube feeding? 1. Observe the digestion of formula. 2. Check fluid and electrolyte status. 3. Evaluate absorption of the last feeding. 4. Confirm proper nasogastric tube placement. 745. 3 Rationale: All the stomach contents are aspirated and measured before administering a tube feeding. This procedure measures the gastric residual volume. The gastric residual volume is checked to confirm whether undigested formula from a previous feeding remains and thereby evaluates the absorption of the last feeding. It is important to check the gastric residual before administration of a tube feeding. A full stomach could result in overdistention, thus predisposing the client to regurgitation and possible aspiration. If residual feeding is obtained, the health care provider's prescription and agency policy are checked to determine the course of action (hold or reduce the volume of the intermittent tube feeding). Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, best. Next, note the subject, the purpose of checking residual volume. Think about the complications associated with tube feedings and the risk of aspiration with an overdistended stomach. Review: the purpose for checking gastric residual volume. Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Data Collection Content Area: Adult Health: Gastrointestinal Priority Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Nutrition Reference(s): Cooper, Gosnell (2015), pp. 676, 680. 746. A postoperative client requests medication for flatulence (gas pains). Which medication from the following PRN list should the nurse administer to this client? 1. Ondansetron (Zofran) 2. Simethicone (Mylicon) 3. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 4. Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia, MOM) 746. 2 Rationale: Simethicone is an antiflatulent used in the relief of pain caused by excessive gas in the gastrointestinal tract. Ondansetron is used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting. Acetaminophen is a nonopioid analgesic. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and laxative. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, a medication to treat flatulence (gas pains). Recalling the classifications of the medications in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: simethicone (Mylicon). Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Pharmacology: Gastrointestinal Medications Priority Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Pain Reference(s): Hodgson, Kizior (2015), pp. . 747. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of major depression. During the admission interview, the nurse determines that a major concern is the client's altered nutrition related to poor nutritional intake. Which nursing intervention related to altered nutrition should be the initial choice? 1. Weigh the client three times per week, before breakfast. 2. Explain to the client the importance of a good nutritional intake. 3. Report the nutritional concern to the psychiatrist and obtain a nutritional consult as soon as possible. 4. Offer the client several small, frequent meals daily, and schedule brief nursing interactions with the client during these times. 747. 4 Rationale: Change in appetite is one of the major symptoms of depression. Offering the client several small, frequent meals and the nurse's presence at that time to support, encourage, or perhaps even feed the client is the most appropriate intervention. A client with depression experiences poor concentration and will not understand the importance of an adequate nutritional intake. Weighing the client does not address how to increase nutritional intake. Reporting the nutritional problems to the psychiatrist is correct to some degree, but it does not address how one might increase food intake. Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, initial, and focus on the subject, the poor nutritional intake. The correct option is the only option that addresses the altered nutrition concretely and designs a method in which the client will feasibly increase the nutritional intake. Review: nutritional concerns with depression. Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Mental Health Priority Concepts: Mood and Affect, Nutrition Reference(s): deWit, Kumagai (2013), p. 1058. 748. A client received 20 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at 8:00 am. The nurse should check the client for a potential hypoglycemic reaction at which time? 1. 5:00 pm 2. 10:00 am 3. 11:00 am 4. 11:00 pm 748. 1 Rationale: NPH is intermediate-acting insulin. Its onset of action is 1 to 2½ hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, NPH insulin. Recalling that peak action is between 4 and 12 hours will direct you to the correct option. Review: the characteristics of NPH insulin. Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying Client Needs: Physiological Integrity Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Implementation Content Area: Pharmacology: Endocrine Medications974 Priority Concepts: Clinical Judgment, Glucose Regulation Reference(s): Lehne (2013), p. 712. An emergency department nurse is caring for an older client who may have been physically abused by her caregiver. In planning care for the client, the nurse makes a priority of: A) Notifying the police department B) Obtaining psychiatric help for the caregiver C) Contacting adult protective services to investigate the situation D) Telling the caregiver that he or she is not allowed to care for the client Answer: C Rationale: If physical abuse or neglect is suspected, the priority nursing actions are to assess the client, treat any physical injuries, and ensure that the client is safe. Once these measures have been taken, referral to adult protective services is appropriate. The nurse also notifies the physician. Although there are laws requiring healthcare professionals to report suspected elder abuse to local authorities, calling the police at this point is premature. Telling the caregiver that he or she is no longer allowed to care for the client could trigger aggressive behavior on the part of the caregiver. Although the nurse may be involved in obtaining psychiatric assistance for the caregiver, this is not the priority action. A nurse responds to an external disaster in a large city involving an explosion at a shopping mall. Numerous victims require treatment. Which victim will the nurse attend to first? A) A victim with multiple bruises who is alert and oriented B) A victim who has sustained multiple lacerations with minor bleeding Incorrect C) A victim who is alert and wandering around yelling that he cannot see D) A victim with a crush injury to the abdomen who has no pulse or blood pressure Answer: C Rationale: The nurse determines which victim will be attended to first on the basis of the acuity level of the victims involved in the disaster. The victim who must be treated immediately because of the threat to life, limb, or vision is categorized as emergent and is the priority. The victim who requires treatment but whose life, limb, or vision is not threatened if care can be provided within 1 to 2 hours is considered urgent and is the second priority. Victims who require evaluation and possible treatment but for whom time is not a critical factor are categorized as nonurgent and are the third priority. A victim who is deceased after sustaining multiple serious injuries is not the priority. A nurse on the day shift receives the client assignment for the day. Which assigned client will the nurse assess first? A) A client who has been fitted with a closed chest tube drainage system B) A client with a nasogastric tube who underwent bowel resection 2 days ago C) A client who was admitted during the night because of congestive heart failure Correct D) A client on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status who is scheduled for a barium enema at 10 a.m. Answer: C Rationale: The nurse would first assess the client who was admitted during the night because of congestive heart failure. This client's problem is directly related to airway, breathing, and circulation, and the nurse would need to determine that the interventions administered on admission and during the night were effective. The nurse would next assess the client who has been fitted with a closed chest tube drainage system. This client's problem also involves airway; however, there is no indication that this client is experiencing any acute problems. The nurse would next assess the client with a nasogastric tube who underwent bowel resection 2 days ago to ensure that the client is comfortable and that the nasogastric tube is functioning. The nurse would then assess the client scheduled for a barium enema to ensure that this client understands the reason for the diagnostic test. The nurse who works on the night shift enters the medication room and finds a coworker with a tourniquet wrapped around her upper arm. The coworker is about to insert a needle, attached to a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. Which is the most appropriate action by the nurse? 1. call security 2. call police 3. call the nursing supervisor 4. lock the coworker in the medication room until help is obtained 3. call the nursing supervisor Rationale: the nurse practice act requires reporting impaired nurses. The nurse should report it to the nursing supervisor. A hospitalized client tells the nurse that an instructional directive is being prepared and that the lawyer will be bringing the document to the hospital for witness signatures. The client asks the nurse for assistance in obtaining a witness to the will. Which is the most appropriate response to the client? 1. "I will sign as a witness to your signature" 2. "you will need to find a witness on your own" 3. "whoever is available at the time will sign as a witness for you" 4. "I will call the nursing supervisor to seek assistance regarding your request" 4. "I will call the nursing supervisor to seek assistance regarding your request" Rationale: Living wills are required to be in writing and signed by the client, and their signature must be witnessed or notarized. Laws regarding living wills vary by state to state, and many states inhibit any employee from being a witness. The nurse has made an error in documentation of dose administered of an opioid pain medication in the client's record. The nurse draws 1 mg from the vial and another RN witnesses wasting of the remaining 1 mg. When scanning the medication, the nurse entered into the MAR that 2 mg of hydromorphone was administered instead of the actual dose administered, which was 1 mg. The nurse should take which actions to correct the MAR? Select all that apply: 1. complete and file an occurrence report 2. right-click on the entry and modify it to reflect the correct information 3. document the correct information and end with the nurse'e signature and title 4. obtain a cosignature from the RN who witnessed the waste of the remaining 1 mg 5. document in a nurse's note in the client's record detailing the corrected information. 2, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Electronic health records will have a time date stamp that indicates an amendment has been entered. If the nurse makes an error, they should follow agency protocols to correct the error. In the MAR the nurse can right click on the entry and modify it to correct it. Since this is an opioid medication, the nurse should obtain a cosignature from the RN who witnessed the wasting of the excess medication. A nurse's note should be used to detail the event and the corrections made, and the nurse's name and title will be stamped on the entry in the record. An occurrence report is not needed in this situation. Upgrade to remove ads Only $35.99/year Which identifies accurate nursing documentation notations? Select all that apply: 1. The client slept through the night 2. Abdominal wound dressing is dry and intact without drainage 3. The client seemed angry when awakened for vital sign measurement 4. The client appears to become anxious when it is time for respiratory treatments 5. The client's left lower medial leg wound is 3cm in length without redness, drainage, or edema 1, 2, 5 Rationale: Factual documentation has descriptive, objective information about what the nurse sees, feels, hears, or smells. Inferences and vague terms are not acceptable because its an opinion/not factual.