Exam 2-N Latest Version 2025 Complete Questions And Correct Answers A+ Graded.

Which of the following changes are NOT associated with Postural Scoliosis? Select one: 1. Shortened foot pronator muscles on the short side 2. Shortened foot supinator muscles on the short side 3. Elongated hip abductor muscles on concave side 4. Short hip adductors muscles on the convex side - correct answer The correct answer is: Shortened foot pronator muscles on the short side Answer: The patient will have elongated foot pronator muscles on the elongated side. Short hip adductors muscles on the convex side, shortened foot supinator muscles on the short side and elongated hip abductor muscles on concave side are associated with postural scoliosis. Reference: Magee Orthopedic Physical Assessment Sixth Edition pages A 45 year-old patient presented with pes planus and complains of pain on the plantar aspect during the late stance phase of gait. Which of the following interventions would be LEAST effective for this patient? Select one: 1. Stretching of gastrocnemius muscle 2. Marble pick ups 3. Improvement of 1stTMT joint ROM 4. Medial glide at the subtalar joint - correct answer The correct answer is: Medial glide at the subtalar joint Answer: Patient's with pes planus present with a limited windlass effect and with an abnormally dropped medial longitudinal arch. The patient will have an overstretched and weakened plantar fascia and cannot adequately accept or dissipate body weight. A foot with pes planus(flat foot) typically has a poorly supported medial longitudinal arch. During an attempt to stand up on their tiptoes, the forefoot sags under the load of the body weight. The reduced extension of the metatarsophalangeal joints limits the usefulness of the windlass effect. Even with strong activation of the intrinsic muscles, the arch remains flattened and the mid foot and forefoot unstable. Reference: Neumann, Kinesiology of the Musculoskeletal System, second edition, page 604. A 45-year-old male, who is being treated for low back pain, mentions that he had a colonoscopy in the past week. He reports that his physician observed that he had pouches in the walls of his large intestine with abscesses in it. What are the features most commonly seen in this condition? Select one: 1. Pain at the left lower abdomen with fever, nausea, and red bloody stools 2. Pain generalized in the lower abdomen, relieved on passing gas 3. Pain in the epigastric region that is relieved with food intake 4. Pain in the right lower abdomen with severe diarrhea, loss of appetite, and weight loss - correct answer The correct answer is: Pain at the left lower abdomen with fever, nausea, and red bloody stools Answer: Diverticulitis is characterized by the presence of formation of pouches and abscesses in the wall of the large intestine, especially the colon. The pain is referred to left lower abdomen and lower back. Other symptoms that can be seen are nausea, fever and red bloody stools due to the bleeding abscess. Additionally the patient may report having either diarrhea or constipation. Reference: Goodman, Pathophysiology Implication for the Physical Therapist, Fourth Edition, Page 333, 339-340 A Physical Therapist is including mobilizations in her plan of care to help increase knee extension. Which of the following techniques would be MOST appropriate in an effort to improve the patient's ROM? Select one: 1. Medial patellar glide 2. Tibiofemoral anterior glide 3. Tibiofemoral posterior glide 4. Inferior patellar glide - correct answer The correct answer is: Tibiofemoral anterior glide Answer: Tibial femoral anterior mobilization glide would be the most appropriate to increase knee extension. The concave moving on convex method applies when mobilizing in the same direction. Tibiofemoral posterior glide would increase knee flexion with concave moving on convex. An inferior patellar glide would help increase knee flexion. A medial patellar glide would help with patellar tracking and prevent any dislocation. Reference: Kinser, Carolyn. Colby, Lynn Allen. Therapeutic Exercise. Foundations and Techniques. Sixth edition. 2007. 773-774 A 21 year old male has been receiving Physical Therapy for 3 weeks status post a left knee ACL reconstruction. At this point in time, a goal of the Physical Therapist would MOST likely include which of the following? Select one: 1. Improving kinesthetic awareness 2. Achieving dynamic control of left knee 3. Achieving full-pain free ROM 4. Preventing reflex inhibition of muscle - correct answer The correct answer is: Preventing reflex inhibition of muscle Answer: Preventing reflex inhibition of muscles would be expected during this time frame. The Physical Therapist would want to prevent atrophy from developing in the quadriceps and hamstrings in order to maintain stabilization. During weeks 4-10, the Physical Therapist will primarily focus on improving the kinesthetic awareness during closed chain activities, full pain free ROM, and dynamic control of left knee. Reference: Kisner, Carolyn. Colby, Lynn Allen. Therapeutic Exercise. Foundation and Techniques. Sixth Edition. 6. 812 A Physical Therapist and Occupational Therapist working in a skilled Nursing facility are discussing wheelchair prescription for a patient who incurred a C6 (ASIA B) Spinal cord lesion. What is the best wheelchair prescription for this patient? Select one: 1. Manual wheelchair with propulsion aids 2. Manual wheelchair with standard hand rims for increased propulsion 3. Manual wheelchair with standard hand rims 4. Manual wheelchair with friction surface hand rims Feedback The correct answer is: Manual wheelchair with friction surface hand rims - correct answer The correct answer is: Manual wheelchair with friction surface hand rims Answer: Manual wheelchair with propulsion aids would be best for a patient with C5 SCI as the patient would not have a tenodesis grip or any grip strength. Manual wheelchair with standard hand rims would be best for a patient with C8-T1 SCI. A patient with a C8-T1 SCI will have improved grip strength secondary to preserved finger flexors and small muscles of the hand that will be innervated. Manual wheelchair with friction surface hand rims would be best for a patient with C6 SCI as tenodesis grip can be used to propel the wheelchair, however their grip is not strong and friction surface is required. Manual wheelchair with friction surface hand rims for increased propulsion would be best for a patient with C7 SCI as they will have improved grip strength but may still benefit with friction surface for increased propulsion. Reference: Physical Rehabilitation by Susan O Sullivan. ED.6 Pg. 921-923 Avascular necrosis of the hip is caused by multiple etiologies resulting in an impaired blood supply to the femoral head. Which of the following ROMs are decreased in the hip with avascular necrosis? Select one: 1. Flexion, internal rotation, abduction 2. Flexion, external rotation, adduction 3. Flexion, external rotation, abduction 4. Flexion, internal rotation, adduction - correct answer The correct answer is: Flexion, internal rotation, abduction Answer: "FABIR" (F flexion, AB abduction, IR internal rotation) all have a decreased ROM at the hip with avascular necrosis. Avascular necrosis has symptoms including pain in the groin and/or thigh, and tenderness with palpation at the hip joint. Reference: Dutton's Orthopedic Examination Evaluation and Intervention, Third Edition Page 228 A 32 year old male patient arrived to an outpatient clinic with right heel pain during ambulation. Upon examination, the Physical Therapist observes the patient's calcaneus in eversion after heel strike. The Physical Therapist would like to utilize an orthotic that could help alleviate the patient's pain. Which of the following orthotics would MOST LIKELY benefit this patient? Select one: 1. Forefoot (lateral wedge) 2. Cushion heel 3. Rear foot Varus post (medial wedge) 4. Rear foot Valgus post (lateral wedge)