ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2025 (RN) | V1 & V2
| 160 Verified Questions with A+ Rationales
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports
blurred vision and severe headache. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Preterm labor
C. Preeclampsia
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: C. Preeclampsia
Rationale: The combination of blurred vision and a severe headache at 36 weeks
gestation strongly indicates preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy
that can lead to eclampsia if untreated. Placenta previa causes painless vaginal
bleeding, preterm labor involves uterine contractions, and hyperemesis gravidarum
primarily presents with persistent vomiting and weight loss, not neurological
symptoms.
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2. A postpartum client is 2 hours after delivery and her fundus is boggy and
deviated to the right. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Document the finding
B. Administer oxytocin
C. Assist the client to void
D. Massage the fundus
Answer: C. Assist the client to void
Rationale: A boggy fundus that is deviated to the right indicates bladder
distention, which prevents proper uterine contraction. The first action is to assist
the client to void. Fundal massage may follow if the uterus remains boggy.
Oxytocin may be administered if atony persists, but initial bladder emptying is
essential to restore uterine tone and prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
3. A newborn of a mother with gestational diabetes is at risk for which
complication within the first few hours after birth?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
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C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
Answer: B. Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes often experience
hypoglycemia after birth because maternal glucose supply ceases, but the infant
continues to produce high levels of insulin. Close blood glucose monitoring is
essential during the first hours of life.
4. A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks of gestation about the importance of
kick counts. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. “You should feel at least 3 movements every 12 hours.”
B. “Lie on your back to perform kick counts.”
C. “Contact your provider if fewer than 10 movements are felt in 2 hours.”
D. “Kick counts are only needed in the first trimester.”
Answer: C.
Rationale: Fetal movement is a sign of fetal well-being. The client should feel at
least 10 movements in 2 hours; fewer may indicate fetal compromise. Lying on the
left side enhances perfusion, and the back-lying position is discouraged due to vena
cava compression. Kick counts are most relevant in the second and third trimesters.
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5. A client who is postpartum day 1 reports burning on urination and urinary
urgency. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Endometritis
B. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
C. Mastitis
D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Answer: B. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Rationale: Dysuria, burning, and urgency postpartum are classic signs of a UTI,
often caused by catheterization or perineal trauma. Endometritis presents with
fever and uterine tenderness, mastitis presents with breast pain and redness, and
postpartum hemorrhage presents with heavy vaginal bleeding.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who delivered via cesarean birth 12 hours ago.
Which assessment requires immediate intervention?
A. Small amount of serosanguinous drainage at the incision
B. Fundus firm at the level of the umbilicus
C. Saturating a perineal pad in 30 minutes
D. Pain rated 5/10 at the incision site