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NR 667 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update

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NR 667 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual Actual Emended Exam Questions With Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update 1. A 55-year-old male undergoing chemotherapy presents with fatigue, pallor, and frequent infections. Labs: WBC 1.1, Hgb 7.8, PLT 40. What is the most likely cause? a) Iron deficiency anemia b) Aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression c) Vitamin B12 deficiency d) Hemolytic anemia - ANSWER b) Aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression 2. Your 58-year-old male patient identifies a bothersome 2cm lesion on his forehead during your admission exam which is right where his baseball caps hit and cause discomfort. You identify it as a seborrheic keratosis. Which of the following represents the most effective strategy for removal? a) Shave biopsy b) Punch biopsy c) Elliptical excision d) Local wide excision - ANSWER Shave biopsy 3. What is the most common form of skin cancer? a) Basal cell carcinoma b) Keratoacanthoma c) Squamous cell carcinoma d) Malignant melanoma - ANSWER Basal cell carcinoma 4. A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections on her lips. She wants to know how to manage future outbreaks. What is the most appropriate initial management for recurrent HSV? a) Oral antivirals at the onset of symptoms b) Daily oral antiviral prophylaxis c) Immunotherapy d) Topical antibiotics during outbreaks - ANSWER onset of symptoms Oral antivirals at the 5. You are admitting an otherwise healthy 67-year-old female patient with a leading diagnosis of hypotension. She has a history of palmar dyshidrotic eczema who has been taking mometasone ointment for over a month. She reports stopping this medication a few days prior to admission. With this information, what is the likely diagnosis of her admission? a) Suppression of the HPA axis causing an Addisonian crisis b) Acute heart failure c) Dehydration d) Suppression of the adrenal glands causing Cushing syndrome - ANSWER Suppression of the HPA axis causing an Addisonian crisis

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NR 667 Verified Multiple Choice and Conceptual
Actual Emended Exam Questions With
Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers
Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update

1. A 55-year-old male undergoing chemotherapy presents with fatigue, pallor, and
frequent infections. Labs: WBC 1.1, Hgb 7.8, PLT 40. What is the most likely cause?
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression
c) Vitamin B12 deficiency
d) Hemolytic anemia

- ANSWER b) Aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression


2. Your 58-year-old male patient identifies a bothersome 2cm lesion on his
forehead during your admission exam which is right where his baseball caps hit
and cause discomfort. You identify it as a seborrheic keratosis. Which of the
following represents the most effective strategy for removal?
a) Shave biopsy
b) Punch biopsy
c) Elliptical excision
d) Local wide excision - ANSWER Shave biopsy


3. What is the most common form of skin cancer?
a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Keratoacanthoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Malignant melanoma - ANSWER Basal cell carcinoma

, 4. A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent herpes simplex virus
(HSV) infections on her lips. She wants to know how to manage future outbreaks.
What is the most appropriate initial management for recurrent HSV?
a) Oral antivirals at the onset of symptoms
b) Daily oral antiviral prophylaxis
c) Immunotherapy
d) Topical antibiotics during outbreaks - ANSWER Oral antivirals at the
onset of symptoms


5. You are admitting an otherwise healthy 67-year-old female patient with a
leading diagnosis of hypotension. She has a history of palmar dyshidrotic eczema
who has been taking mometasone ointment for over a month. She reports
stopping this medication a few days prior to admission. With this information,
what is the likely diagnosis of her admission?
a) Suppression of the HPA axis causing an Addisonian crisis
b) Acute heart failure
c) Dehydration
d) Suppression of the adrenal glands causing Cushing syndrome - ANSWER
Suppression of the HPA axis causing an Addisonian crisis


6. A high school football player presents Monday morning after sustaining an
injury Friday night. The injuring play involved a tackle to the lateral right leg. The
player walked off the field but was unable to play the rest of the game and has
been in pain and limping since. In assessing for a medical meniscus and lateral
meniscus injury, the nurse practitioner should perform the:
a) McMurray test
b) Lachman test
c) PSOAS test

, d) Thomas test - ANSWER McMurray test


7. The patient undergoing a cardiac arrest after a recent fracture should be
considered for which of the following potential causes of pulseless electrical
activity?
a) Pericarditis
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Fat embolism
d) Hyponatremia - ANSWER Fat embolism


8. A 50-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis presents for a routine
check-up. What is the most appropriate medication to prevent further bone loss?
a) Bisphosphonates
b) Estrogen therapy
c) Vitamin D supplements
d) Calcium supplements - ANSWER Bisphosphonates


9. The most specific test for gout is:
a) Serum purine level
b) Synovial fluid with monosodium urate crystals
c) Normalized uric acid level after a trial of allopurinol (Zyloprim)
d) Hyperuricemia greater than 7mg/dL - ANSWER Synovial fluid with
monosodium urate crystals


10. Which of the following behaviors is likely to elicit rhabdomyolysis?
a) Starting on a low-intensity statin for lipid reduction
b) Participating in a full ironman triathlon

, c) Swimming for 10 minutes in a lap pool
d) Working out for 30 minutes with plyometric exercises - ANSWER
Participating in a full ironman triathlon


A 75-year-old presents with depression. The patient also has osteoarthritis of
both knees that interferes with mobility. Which antidepressant may also benefit
osteoarthritis?
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Mirtazapine (Remeron)

Paroxetine (Paxil) - ANSWER Duloxetine (Cymbalta)


Your 50 year-old male African American (AA) patient was found to have a blood
pressure of 160/96 upon arrival to your clinic. He does not have any other medical
conditions. For the following 24 hours of self-reported vital signs, it remained
between 160-170 systolic and 90-100 diastolic without treatment. After finding all
basic metabolic panel (BMP) lab values to be within normal limits, your first
choice of antihypertensive is most likely which of the following agents?
carvedilol
metoprolol
amlodipine

lisinopril - ANSWER amlodipine


A patient is being followed for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He also
has a diagnosis of polycythemia vera and has regular phlebotomies for
management. Which of the following statements about this patient is correct?

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