READINESS EXAM 1 2025
UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+ BY EXPERTS WITH
RATIONALE
The nurse is teaching a group of pregnant women about hormonal changes during pregnancy.
The nurse recognizes that teaching was successful when the women identify which hormone as
causing amenorrhea?
1. Progesterone 2. Estrogen 3. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 4. Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
1. Correct: Progesterone causes amenorrhea. 2. Incorrect: Estrogen renders the female genital
tract suitable for fertilization. 3. Incorrect: This stimulates the growth of the graafian follicle in
the ovary. 4. Incorrect: This is the hormone present in urine for pregnancy test
The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a
closed chest wound. The nurse notes paradoxical chest wall movement. Which problem does the
nurse suspect?
1. Mediastinal shift 2. Tension pneumothorax 3. Flail chest 4. Pulmonary contusion - CORRECT
ANSWER>>>Rationale
3. Correct: Hallmark of flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This is often described as
a see-saw effect when observing the rise and fall of the chest. 1. Incorrect: A closed or open
tension pneumothorax results from the lung collapsing and air entering into the pleural cavity.
This results in pressure shifting toward the unaffected pleural cavity. 2. Incorrect: Tension
pneumothorax occurs when there is an accumulation of air in the pleural cavity. The client may
exhibit dyspnea, tachycardia, or hypotension. 4. Incorrect: A pulmonary contusion usually results
from blunt trauma. Bruising of lung would be demonstrated by pain but not paradoxical chest
wall movement.
Which client can a nurse manager safely transfer from the telemetry unit to the obstetrical unit in
order to receive a new admit?
1. Client admitted with possible tuberculosis (TB) awaiting skin test results. 2. Client diagnosed
with seizure disorder. 3. Client with a new pacemaker scheduled to be discharged in the morning.
4. Client with a history of mild heart failure prescribed one unit of packed red blood cells for
anemia. - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
2. Correct: OB nurses would have the appropriate knowledge needed to care for a client with a
seizure disorders, because they care for clients who have eclampsia (seizures). 1. Incorrect: This
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,client might have tuberculosis (TB) and is not a good choice to move to the OB floor, because of
the risk for transmission of an infectious disease. 3. Incorrect: This client is not the best one to be
transferred to the OB floor, because these nurses do not routinely care for clients with a new
pacemaker. The client is also likely to remain on a cardiac monitor until discharge. 4. Incorrect:
This client is at risk for fluid volume overload since there is a history of heart failure and would
require close monitoring while receiving a blood transfusion.
The nurse is teaching a group of clients who have reduced peripheral circulation how to care for
their feet. What points should the nurse include?
1. Check shoes for rough spots in the lining. 2. File toenails straight across. 3. Cover feet and
between toes with creams to moisten the skin. 4. Break in new shoes gradually. 5. Use pumice
stones to treat calluses. - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
1., 2., & 4. Correct: Rubbing from rough spots in the shoe can lead to corns or calluses. File the
toenails rather than cutting to avoid skin injury. File nails straight across the ends of the toes. If
the nails are too thick or misshapen to file, consult podiatrist. Break in new shoes gradually by
increasing the wearing time 30-60 minutes each day. 3. Incorrect: Cover the feet, except between
the toes, with creams or lotions to moisten the skin. Lotion will also soften calluses. A lotion that
reduces dryness effectively is a mixture of lanolin and mineral oil. 5. Incorrect: Avoid self-
treatment of corns or calluses. Pumice stones and some callus and corn applications are injurious
to the skin. Do not cut calluses or corns. Consult a podiatrist or primary healthcare provider first.
When caring for young adult clients, which developmental tasks would the nurse expect to see?
1. Satisfying and supporting the next generation. 2. Reflecting on life accomplishments. 3.
Developing meaningful and intimate relationships. 4. Giving and sharing with an individual
without asking what will be given or shared in return. 5. Developing sense of fulfillment by
volunteering in the community. - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
3. & 4. Correct: In young adulthood, the developmental tasks involve intimacy versus isolation.
Intimacy relates more to sharing than to sex. Intimacy produces feelings of safety, closeness, and
trust. 1. Incorrect: Parenting is a primary task of middle adulthood. This is the middle adulthood
stage of Generativity versus Stagnation, where each adult must find some way to satisfy and
support the next generation. 2. Incorrect: During late adulthood, there is refection on life
accomplishments. This is the maturity stage of Ego Integrity versus Despair, where there is a
reflection of one's life. 5. Incorrect: During middle age, a sense of fulfillment can be found by
volunteering in the community. This is part of middle age, where the adult is finding ways to
support others.
What symptoms does the nurse expect to see in a client with bulimia nervosa?
1. Amenorrhea 2. Feelings of self-worth unduly influenced by weight 3. Recurrent episodes of
binge eating 4. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain 5. Lack of
exercise - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
2., 3. & 4. Correct: Diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are recurrent episodes of binge eating:
recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain such as laxative, diuretic,
or enema use, induced vomiting, fasting, and excessive exercise; and feeling of self-worth
unduly influenced by weight. Amenorrhea is found in anorexia nervosa. 1. Incorrect:
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,Amenorrhea is found in anorexia nervosa. 5. Incorrect: Excessive exercise is found in bulimia
nervosa as a means to compensate for the binge eating.
A client who has had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy develops pain in the left shoulder. Vital
signs, laboratory studies, and an electrocardiogram are within normal limits. What does the nurse
recognize as a contributing cause of the pain?
1. Surgical cannulation of the bile duct is causing spasm and pain. 2. Carbon dioxide used
intraperitoneally is irritating the phrenic nerve. 3. Large abdominal retractors used in the
procedure compressed a nerve. 4. Side lying position in the operating room generated pressure
damage. - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
2. Correct: Phrenic nerve irritation can result in referred pain to the left shoulder. Carbon dioxide
(CO2) is used to inflate the abdominal/chest wall during the procedure for better visualization of
the internal organs. If the CO2 irritates the phrenic nerve, it radiates to the shoulder. 1. Incorrect:
Surgical cannulation of the bile duct is not performed during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. 3.
Incorrect: Large abdominal retractors are not used during this procedure. This is done via a small
incision to accommodate a scope. 4. Incorrect: The client is turned in several directions during
the procedure to prevent damage to the abdominal viscera.
A client is admitted to the medical unit with an acute onset of fever, chills and RUQ pain. Vital
signs are: T 99.8°F (37.7°C), P 132, RR 34, B/P 142/82. ABG results are: pH-7.53, PaCO2 30,
HCO3 22. The nurse determines that this client is in what acid/base imbalance?
1. Respiratory acidosis 2. Respiratory alkalosis 3. Metabolic acidosis 4. Metabolic alkalosis -
CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
2. Correct: This client has a severe infection. Hyperventilation due to anxiety, pain, shock, severe
infection, fever, and liver failure can lead to respiratory alkalosis. pH > 7.45, PCO2 < 35, HCO3
normal. 1. Incorrect: Not acidosis with hyperventilation and pH of 7.53. 3. Incorrect: Not a
metabolic related acid/base imbalance since the HCO3 is in normal range and is not acidosis. 4.
Incorrect: Not a metabolic related acid/base imbalance since the HCO3 is in normal range.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has explained how to prevent the spread of infection to
the charge nurse. Which statement by the UAP indicates that further teaching is needed?
1. "Soap and water should be used for hand washing when our hands are visibly soiled." 2.
"Gloves do not have to be worn when taking a client's vital signs or passing out meal trays." 3.
"Standard precautions should be used on all clients." 4. "When caring for a client who has a
suppressed immune response, a N95 mask should be worn." - CORRECT
ANSWER>>>Rationale
4. Correct: Standard precautions are needed. If there is a risk for coming in contact with client
secretions or excretions, a standard mask may be worn. Routine nursing care does not warrant
the use of an N95 mask. This type mask is needed for client's who are placed on Airborne
Precautions such as for tuberculosis (TB). 1. Incorrect: This is a correct statement regarding the
prevention of infection. Hand washing with soap and water is part of standard precautions. 2.
Incorrect: This is a correct statement. Gloves are needed when coming into contact with body
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, fluids. 3. Incorrect: This is a correct statement. Standard precautions is part of the first line of
defense against the spread of infection.
The nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has been placed on tranylcypromine. The nurse
teaches the client about food to avoid while taking this medication. What food choice by the
client confirms appropriate understanding of the teaching?
1. Cottage cheese 2. Salami 3. Baked chicken 4. Potatoes - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
2. Correct: The client taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) such as tranylcypromine
should avoid foods rich in tyramine or tryptophan. These include: cured foods, those that have
been aged, pickled, fermented, or smoked. These can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. 1.
Incorrect: Clients taking MAOIs can eat cottage cheese in reasonable amounts. 3. Incorrect:
Clients taking MAOIs can eat baked chicken. 4. Incorrect: Clients taking MAOIs can eat
potatoes.
Which nurse is providing cost effective care to a client?
1. Providing palliative care to a terminally ill client. 2. Beginning discharge planning on admit. 3.
Counseling clients on cigarette smoking cessation. 4. Educating a group of parents on the
importance of childhood immunizations. 5. Performing a postop wound dressing change using
clean gloves. - CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
1., 2., 3., & 4. Correct. Palliative care is considered cost effective when caring for the terminally
ill client. There was a 60% drop reported in the healthcare costs since palliative care was
introduced. In comparison to conventional care, palliative care is considered as cost effective in
reducing unnecessary utilization of resources. Palliative care has focused on the efficient and the
effective care that is centered on the clients. The nurse who begins discharge planning on admit
is providing cost effective care. The client may not be able to learn all that is needed if waiting
until the day of discharge. Also, supplies and equipment may be needed. If waiting until the day
of discharge to determine client needs, then discharge can be delayed. This is costly. Counseling
to quit cigarette smoking, colonoscopies, giving beta-blockers to clients after heart attacks are
well-established interventions that are effective and also are cost-effective. Two additional
preventive interventions were found to be cost-saving: childhood immunization and counseling
adults on the use of low dose aspirin. 5. Incorrect. A postop surgical wound dressing change is a
sterile procedure: Sterile gloves are necessary and failure to use them could lead to infection,
which would then increase the cost of care to a client.
A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A
bystander stated that the client lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client
reports a headache and had a Glasgow coma scale (GCS) of 14. The GCS is now 12. What is the
priority nursing intervention for this client?
1. Continue to assess every 15 minutes. 2. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub. 3. Administer
acetaminophen with codeine for headache. 4. Notify the primary healthcare provider. -
CORRECT ANSWER>>>Rationale
4. Correct: On the Glasgow coma scale, we like a number between 13 to 15. This assessment
score has dropped to 12, so the client is getting worse and the headache could mean increasing
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