“HESI & ATI Nursing Exam 2025 Mega Pack
| 120+ Verified NCLEX- RN NGN Test Bank
with A+ Rationales | Well- Revised &
Guaranteed Pass”
1. A 67-year-old patient with chronic heart failure (CHF) presents to the
emergency department with worsening dyspnea, bilateral crackles, and
2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. The nurse notes that the
patient’s blood pressure is 98/60 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, and
oxygen saturation 89% on room air. Which intervention should the
nurse prioritize first?
A. Administer the scheduled oral furosemide dose
B. Place the patient in high Fowler’s position and apply oxygen
C. Prepare the patient for a chest x-ray to assess fluid overload
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D. Notify the healthcare provider about the hypotension
E. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output
✅ Correct Answer: B. Place the patient in high Fowler’s position and
apply oxygen
Rationale:
The immediate priority in a patient with acute decompensated heart failure
and pulmonary edema is to optimize oxygenation and reduce the work of
breathing. Placing the patient in high Fowler’s position with
supplemental oxygen facilitates lung expansion and improves gas
exchange. After stabilizing the airway and breathing, diuretics like
furosemide (Option A) can be given to reduce fluid overload. Notifying the
provider (Option D) and preparing for imaging (Option C) are important but
not the first priority in the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
Inserting a Foley catheter (Option E) can help monitor output but is
secondary to stabilizing respiratory status.
2. A 45-year-old client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with
confusion, diaphoresis, and tremors. Blood glucose reads 48 mg/dL.
What is the priority nursing action?
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A. Administer subcutaneous insulin
B. Encourage oral fluids with electrolytes
C. Provide 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrates
D. Start IV infusion of 0.9% normal saline
E. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
✅ Correct Answer: C. Provide 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrates
Rationale:
Hypoglycemia (<70 mg/dL) requires immediate treatment to prevent
neurological complications such as seizures or coma. Providing 15 g of a
rapid-acting carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tablets) is the first-line
intervention. IV saline (Option D) does not correct low glucose.
Subcutaneous insulin (Option A) would worsen hypoglycemia. Oral fluids
(Option B) without sugar are insufficient. The provider (Option E) can be
notified after stabilizing the patient, as per ABCs and acute care
protocols.
3. A 72-year-old client with COPD presents with increased shortness of
breath, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of 85% on
room air. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
, 4
A. Apply 2 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula
B. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hall
C. Administer prescribed IV corticosteroid
D. Prepare for intubation immediately
E. Obtain a sputum culture for analysis
✅ Correct Answer: A. Apply 2 L/min oxygen via nasal cannula
Rationale:
Clients with COPD exacerbation are at risk for respiratory failure. The
first intervention is to apply low-flow oxygen to improve oxygenation
without suppressing hypoxic drive. Intubation (Option D) is considered only
if the patient fails noninvasive support. Corticosteroids (Option C) are
important but not the immediate priority. Ambulation (Option B) can worsen
hypoxia, and sputum culture (Option E) is a diagnostic step after
stabilization.
4. A 58-year-old client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer reports
fever, sore throat, and fatigue. Laboratory results reveal WBC
1,200/mm³. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?