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,Major Principles of Media Law, 2023, 1st Edition
Genelle Belmas
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, QUESTION POOL FOR EXAM #1 COMMUNICATIONS LAW
Major Principles of Media Law, 2023 edition


CHAPTER 1. THE AMERICAN LEGAL SYSTEM

1. A U.S. Supreme Court decision interpreting the meaning of an act of Congress (for example,
the Copyright Act) may be overruled by:
a) a ruling by a federal regulatory agency;
b) a subsequent act of Congress;
c) a treaty with a foreign nation;
d) a presidential executive order;
e) all of these.

2. How could a U.S. Supreme Court decision interpreting the meaning of the Constitution be
overturned?
a) By a Constitutional amendment;
b) By an act of Congress;
c) By a later Supreme Court decision;
d) By a presidential proclamation;
e) Both choices a and c.

3. The common law is derived from:
a) acts of Congress;
b) acts of state legislatures;
c) court decisions;
d) rulings by federal agencies;
e) rulings by arbitrators.

4. Here’s a legal citation: 419 U.S. 245 (1974). What does “U.S.” tell you about the case?
a) Absolutely nothing;
b) That it is a U.S. Supreme Court decision;
c) That it is a U.S. District Court case;
d) That it is a criminal case, not a civil case;
e) That the U.S. government lost the case in 1974.

5. The rules and regulations adopted by the Federal Trade Commission are examples of:
a) statutory law;
b) common law;
c) constitutional law;
d) administrative law;
e) none of these.

6. In legal terminology, a code is:
a) an indexed collection of court decisions;
b) an organized body of statutory law;

,c) a list of constitutional amendments;
d) a collection of executive orders;
e) a secret message from one judge to others.

7. Products liability, medical malpractice, battery, invasion of privacy, trespass, wrongful death
and libel all fall within a field of civil law known as:
a) torts;
b) contracts;
c) stare decisis;
d) negligence;
e) certiorari.

8. The U.S. Supreme Court in 2003 declared that very large punitive damage awards (i.e., those
exceeding 10 times the provable monetary losses) are usually improper. The case is known as:
a) Plessy v. Ferguson;
b) New York Times v. Sullivan;
c) State Farm v. Campbell;
d) Virginia v. Black;
e) Young v. New Haven Advocate.

9. In a court of equity, an aggrieved party may secure:
a) only monetary compensation for his/her injuries;
b) monetary compensation for injuries plus additional money for “pain and suffering;”
c) non-monetary remedies such as injunctions, restraining orders, and orders of specific
performance;
d) none of these.

10. Decisions of a U.S. District Court are normally appealed to the:
a) Court of Claims;
b) District Court of Appeal;
c) Court of Regulatory Appeals;
d) U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals;
e) U.S. Supreme Court.

11. Which of these courts hears appeals of decisions by federal regulatory agencies such as the
Federal Communications Commission?
a) Court of Claims;
b) District Court;
c) Court of Regulatory Appeals;
d) Circuit Court of Appeals;
e) Supreme Court.

12. Some lawsuits are tried in federal rather than state courts for two main reasons. Some cases
involve federal questions (legal issues governed by federal law). Others go to federal court
primarily because of:
a) a criminal defendant’s claim that no state court would provide a fair trial;

,b) the cost or complexity of a particular lawsuit;
c) diversity of citizenship;
d) a civil litigant’s claim that no state court could be fair;
e) none of these.

13. Legal precedents are normally established by decisions of all of these except:
a) a state’s highest court;
b) the U.S. Supreme Court;
c) U.S. Circuit Courts of Appeals;
d) jury verdicts in trial courts;
e) a state’s intermediate appellate courts.

14. LexisNexis is:
a) a brand of car;
b) a law library in Washington, D.C.;
c) an index of legal terms;
d) a computer data base containing legal materials and news articles;
e) all of these.

15. The term stare decisis refers to:
a) miscellaneous civil wrongs;
b) decisions of the infamous English court of the star chamber;
c) extraordinary relief granted by a court of equity;
d) rulings of early common law courts that were later reversed;
e) the principle that courts normally follow judicial precedents.

16. During most lawsuits, each side is allowed to ask questions of the opposing side before trial.
This process is called:
a) discovery;
b) inquiry;
c) inquisition;
d) rejoinder;
e) remittitur.

17. When an appellate court remands a case, that means:
a) the verdict is affirmed;
b) the verdict is reversed and the case is terminated;
c) the verdict is affirmed in part and reversed in part;
d) a lower court is directed to reconsider the case in light of the appellate court’s opinion;
e) the verdict is set aside and the case is automatically sent to the next-higher court for a further
appeal.

18. When an appellate court distinguishes a previous decision, that means:
a) the court ranks it as very important and agrees with it;
b) the court follows it as a precedent;

,c) the court declines to follow it as a precedent, citing differences between its facts and those of
the current case;
d) none of these.

19. In the 2009 case of Caperton v. Massey Coal, the Supreme Court addressed the issue of:
a) damages;
b) judicial recusal;
c) actual malice;
d) jury verdicts;
e) discovery.

20. The Supreme Court will hear cases where one state sues another as part of its:
a) original jurisdiction;
b) appellate jurisdiction;
c) rule of four;
d) stare decisis;
e) voir dire.

21. The largest circuit in the country is the _______.
a) First
b) Third
c) Eighth
d) Ninth
e) Federal

22. How is the federal appeals system structured?
a) Each state decides for itself how to handle federal appeals;
b) Each state has one federal appeals court;
c) Each Supreme Court justice is responsible for one state;
d) There is one federal appeals court in the whole United States;
e) The country is divided into circuits.

23. Courts can strike down a statute passed by the Legislature if it violates a provision of the
Constitution.
a) true;
b) false.

24. Courts can nullify the actions of an administrative agency if :
a) the agency does something that violates the Constitution;
b) the agency exceeded its statutory powers;
c) the agency acted arbitrarily;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above; decisions by administrative agencies are not reviewable by the courts.

25. If the U.S. Supreme Court grants certiorari, that means:
a) precedent is about to be overruled;

,b) a lower court decision is about to be reviewed;
c) the same thing as summary judgment;
d) it will hear an appeal.

26. Which Supreme Court justice died in 2016 leaving a vacancy in the court during President
Obama’s last year in office?
a) Antonin Scalia;
b) Ruth Bader Ginsberg;
c) John Roberts;
d) David Souter.

27. Who was nominated to the Supreme Court by President Barack Obama but never got a
confirmation vote in the U.S. Senate, losing his opportunity to replace Antonin Scalia?
a) Samuel Alito;
b) Elena Kagen;
c) Merrick Garland;
d) Neil Gorsuch.

28. Which “swing vote” Supreme Court justice retired in 2018, giving President Trump his
second opportunity to nominate a new justice?
a) Antonin Scalia;
b) Anthony Kennedy;
c) Ruth Bader Ginsberg;
d) Neil Gorsuch.

29. The current Supreme Court is referred to as “the ____ Court”?
a) Warren
b) Rehnquist
c) Roberts d) Kavanaugh

30. The “rule of four” refers to which of the following:
a) how many votes it takes to accept a case;
b) how many votes it takes to rule in the plaintiff’s favor;
c) how many votes it takes to write a dissent;
d) none of these are correct.

31. Whose appointment to the Supreme Court occurred in the final days of President Donald
Trump’s presidency?
a) Ruth Bader Ginsburg;
b) Neil Gorsuch;
c) Brett Kavanaugh;
d) Amy Coney Barrett.

32. How many justices did President Donald Trump appoint to the Supreme Court?
a) One;
b) Two;

,c) Three;
d) Four.

33. Chief Justice John Roberts has described himself “as probably the most aggressive defender
of the First Amendment.”
a) true;
b) false.


SCORING KEY, CH. 1
1. B
2. E
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. D
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. E
16. A
17. D
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. E
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. A
27. C
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. C
33. A

,CHAPTER 2. THE LEGACY OF FREEDOM

1. Areopagitica was a famous early defense of freedom of expression. Its author was:
a) Ben Franklin;
b) J.J. Rousseau;
c) John Milton;
d) Thomas Jefferson;
e) John Locke.

2. Prior to the John Peter Zenger trial, juries in criminal (or seditious) libel cases were allowed to
decide:
a) whether the allegedly defamatory statement was true;
b) whether the person accused of libel actually printed the alleged defamation;
c) both of these;
d) neither of these.

3. Only a few years after the First Amendment was ratified, Congress passed which law that
limited freedom of expression:
a) the Fox Libel Act;
b) the Smith Act;
c) the Sedition Act of 1798;
d) the Stamp Act;
e) Lord Campbell’s Act.

4. The Sedition Act of 1798:
a) recognized truth as a defense against libel charges;
b) was seen by many anti-federalists, notably Jefferson and Madison, as a threat to free
expression;
c) inspired resentment against the Federalist Party, although no more than 25 people were
charged with violating it;
d) all of these (choices a, b, and c);
e) none of these.

5. The Alien and Sedition Acts were notable because:
a) they seemingly violated the First Amendment only a few years after it was ratified;
b) they contributed to the popular mood that helped elect Thomas Jefferson to the presidency;
c) they were never used to prosecute Federalists;
d) the Supreme Court did not rule on their constitutionality while they were in effect;
e) all of these.

6. The First Amendment’s guarantees of free speech and free press were made binding on the
states in the case of:
a) Gitlow v. New York;
b) Abrams v. U.S.;
c) Near v. Minnesota;
d) Whitney v. California;

, e) New York Times v. Sullivan.

7. The First Amendment says, “Congress shall make no law...”, and it never mentions state or
local governments. Why does the First Amendment apply to the states today?
a) Because the Supreme Court simply rewrote it without any specific legal basis for doing so;
b) Because of the “due process” clause of the Fourteenth Amendment;
c) Because of the Fifth Amendment “due process” clause;
d) Because of the Fourth Amendment’s safeguards against unreasonable searches and seizures;
e) Because of the actual malice rule.

8. Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes first set forth his famous clear and present danger test for
determining whether controversial speech is protected by the First Amendment in the case of:
a) Fiske v. Kansas;
b) Schenck v. U.S.;
c) Brandenburg v. Ohio;
d) Whitney v. California;
e) Gitlow v. New York.

9. Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes used the clear and present danger test to uphold the
conviction of a man who actively opposed World War I, but he later rethought the meaning of
the clear and present danger test and joined Justice Louis Brandeis in a famous concurring
opinion that advocated broader First Amendment safeguards for unpopular speech in:
a) Fiske v. Kansas;
b) Gitlow v. New York;
c) Brandenburg v. Ohio;
d) Whitney v. California;
e) Yates v. U.S.

10. The Alien Registration Act of 1940 (the Smith Act) was made virtually useless as a tool for
prosecuting communists by a Supreme Court decision that protected those who say they favor
communism as an abstract idea unless it can be proven that they are advocating violent action to
carry out their beliefs. The decision was:
a) Near v. Minnesota;
b) Whitney v. California;
c) Yates v. U.S.;
d) Dennis v. U.S.;
e) Fiske v. Kansas.

11. A Ku Klux Klan member’s prosecution under a criminal syndicalism law was invalidated by
a Supreme Court decision holding that even those who express violent racist views are protected
by the First Amendment unless they create an imminent danger of violent action. The case was:
a) Yates v. U.S.;
b) Gitlow v. New York;
c) Whitney v. California;
d) Brandenburg v. Ohio;
e) Schenck v. U.S.

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