HESI Pharm Practice Test - Assignment
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6xbq3x
1. A client with increased intracranial Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
pressure (ICP) is receiving an in-
fusion of mannitol 25% (Osmitrol). Rationale
Which finding indicates to the prac- Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is administered to
tical nurse (PN) that the medication reduce intracranial swelling, so a GCS of 15 (B) is a
is effective? sensitive indicator of neurologic status that changes as
cerebral edema resolves. (A) is an expected response
of mannitol but is not indicative of a therapeutic de-
crease in cerebral edema. Although headache is a
symptom of ICP, (C) does not imply a reduction in ICP.
Mannitol does not affect body temperature (D).
2. A client with hypertension receives a Uses a salt substitute that has potassium.
prescription for irbesartan (Avapro).
Which finding by the practical nurse Rationale
indicates that the client needs ad- Avapro, angiotensin II receptor blocking (ARB) agent,
ditional instruction regarding the causes vasodilation to reduce blood pressure. Since
medication? ARBs can raise the concentration of potassium in
the blood, the client should be reinstructed to avoid
the use of salt substitutes containing potassium (A).
Avapro, an antihypertensive, is also used to treat dia-
betic nephropathy, so having type 2 diabetes (B) is not
a contraindication for taking this drug. Dizziness (C) is
a common side effect. The drug can be taken with or
without food (D).
3. The practical nurse (PN) is giving Take before meals and apart from other drugs.
medications to a client with hyper-
lipidemia who receives a new pre- Rationale
scription for cholestyramine (Ques- Cholestyramine is used to treat hyperlipidemia of pri-
tran). Which information should the mary hypercholesterolemia and binds with bile in the
PN reinforce with the client? intestines to reduce fat and cholesterol absorption
, HESI Pharm Practice Test - Assignment
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6xbq3x
from foods. The systemic absorption of oral med-
ications, such as digoxin and warfarin, can also be
reduced, so the medication should be taken before
meals and apart from other drugs (C). (A and B) are not
necessary when taking Questran. Although constipa-
tion is a side effect, a diet high in fiber, not (D), should
be recommended.
4. An elderly female client who is start- "I wonder if I will have to stop taking my diuretic for my
ing a pain management program kidney problem."
using opioid analgesia receives a
prescription for codeine 10 mg PO Rationale
q4 hours PRN for pain, or codeine Decreased kidney function in an elderly client can
15 mg PO q4 hours PRN for pain, or cause life-threatening complications, such as respi-
codeine 30 mg PO q4 hours PRN for ratory depression, when opioid analgesics, such as
pain. Which statement by the client codeine, are introduced (C). The correct action is to
is most important to consider when start with the lowest dose when the client is known
deciding on the dose to administer to have decreased kidney function. Addiction is not
at this time? as common of an occurrence when the medication is
used for a legitimate need (A). Sedation is an expected
side effect of the narcotic, but is not life-threatening
(B). Constipation is a treatable side effect (D).
5. A postoperative client is receiving Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PRN.
hydromorphone (Dilaudid) via an
epidural administration. The practi- Rationale
cal nurse (PN) notes the client is con- Pruritis (itching) is a common side effect of opioids
stantly scratching his arms. Which that are administered via intraspinal (i.e., epidural, in-
action should the PN take? trathecal) routes. An antihistamine, such as diphenhy-
dramine (Benadryl) (B), should be given to relieve the
client's itching. Pruritis is a known side effect, not an
allergic response, so (A) is not indicated. The client is
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6xbq3x
1. A client with increased intracranial Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
pressure (ICP) is receiving an in-
fusion of mannitol 25% (Osmitrol). Rationale
Which finding indicates to the prac- Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is administered to
tical nurse (PN) that the medication reduce intracranial swelling, so a GCS of 15 (B) is a
is effective? sensitive indicator of neurologic status that changes as
cerebral edema resolves. (A) is an expected response
of mannitol but is not indicative of a therapeutic de-
crease in cerebral edema. Although headache is a
symptom of ICP, (C) does not imply a reduction in ICP.
Mannitol does not affect body temperature (D).
2. A client with hypertension receives a Uses a salt substitute that has potassium.
prescription for irbesartan (Avapro).
Which finding by the practical nurse Rationale
indicates that the client needs ad- Avapro, angiotensin II receptor blocking (ARB) agent,
ditional instruction regarding the causes vasodilation to reduce blood pressure. Since
medication? ARBs can raise the concentration of potassium in
the blood, the client should be reinstructed to avoid
the use of salt substitutes containing potassium (A).
Avapro, an antihypertensive, is also used to treat dia-
betic nephropathy, so having type 2 diabetes (B) is not
a contraindication for taking this drug. Dizziness (C) is
a common side effect. The drug can be taken with or
without food (D).
3. The practical nurse (PN) is giving Take before meals and apart from other drugs.
medications to a client with hyper-
lipidemia who receives a new pre- Rationale
scription for cholestyramine (Ques- Cholestyramine is used to treat hyperlipidemia of pri-
tran). Which information should the mary hypercholesterolemia and binds with bile in the
PN reinforce with the client? intestines to reduce fat and cholesterol absorption
, HESI Pharm Practice Test - Assignment
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_6xbq3x
from foods. The systemic absorption of oral med-
ications, such as digoxin and warfarin, can also be
reduced, so the medication should be taken before
meals and apart from other drugs (C). (A and B) are not
necessary when taking Questran. Although constipa-
tion is a side effect, a diet high in fiber, not (D), should
be recommended.
4. An elderly female client who is start- "I wonder if I will have to stop taking my diuretic for my
ing a pain management program kidney problem."
using opioid analgesia receives a
prescription for codeine 10 mg PO Rationale
q4 hours PRN for pain, or codeine Decreased kidney function in an elderly client can
15 mg PO q4 hours PRN for pain, or cause life-threatening complications, such as respi-
codeine 30 mg PO q4 hours PRN for ratory depression, when opioid analgesics, such as
pain. Which statement by the client codeine, are introduced (C). The correct action is to
is most important to consider when start with the lowest dose when the client is known
deciding on the dose to administer to have decreased kidney function. Addiction is not
at this time? as common of an occurrence when the medication is
used for a legitimate need (A). Sedation is an expected
side effect of the narcotic, but is not life-threatening
(B). Constipation is a treatable side effect (D).
5. A postoperative client is receiving Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PRN.
hydromorphone (Dilaudid) via an
epidural administration. The practi- Rationale
cal nurse (PN) notes the client is con- Pruritis (itching) is a common side effect of opioids
stantly scratching his arms. Which that are administered via intraspinal (i.e., epidural, in-
action should the PN take? trathecal) routes. An antihistamine, such as diphenhy-
dramine (Benadryl) (B), should be given to relieve the
client's itching. Pruritis is a known side effect, not an
allergic response, so (A) is not indicated. The client is
