WGU D027 Course Material Questions
Which of the following is not a cellular function? - (correct Answer) - Combustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-products of those
processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion) are generally
metaphorical.
What are mitochondria responsible for? - (correct Answer) - Energy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major metabolic
processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
Which if the following can cause edema? - (correct Answer) - Increased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and accumulation
of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular results in hypertension,
while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third
spaces (i.e. edema).
Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? - (correct Answer) - Two
diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the completion
of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle and is the
preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the
opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase.
What indicates hypokalemia? - (correct Answer) - Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some variations
of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific
conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not
necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - (correct Answer) - Uterine enlargement due
to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the
enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells
grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased
cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid
organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the
uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the
support of a fetus.
What regulates the sodium balance? - (correct Answer) - Aldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys' regulation of
,sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - (correct Answer) - Hypotonic
-
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular fluid (ECF)
into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra-
and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF
above normal.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - (correct Answer) - Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH
homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - (correct Answer) - pH below 7.35;
Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less
than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - (correct Answer) - Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation
means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in
this context.
What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - (correct Answer) - 50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child being
heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? - (correct Answer) - It
affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and women will
be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in time? - (correct
Answer) - Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time divided by
the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the incidence rate and
how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is
the measure of a risk factor effect.
Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has a larger genetic
component? - (correct Answer) - Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer are
hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
,Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - (correct Answer) - To destroy foreign,
invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive organisms. As a
secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response processes of the body.
What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? - (correct Answer) - Increased
vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of inflammation will result in
the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).
Previousquestion
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - (correct Answer) - Bone marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes, reside to mature into
B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen,
and thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and development.
Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to recipient? - (correct
Answer) - Passive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that occur from
(acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to foreign antigens. Passive
immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are present with or without simulation can arise
or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies).
What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - (correct Answer) - Increased susceptibility for infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses to pathogens and
other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases.
What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or soaps also known as? -
(correct Answer) - Irritant contact dermatitis -
Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a manifestation of an
innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic, stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more
systemic processes of the immune system and vasculature.
Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses and a herald patch? -
(correct Answer) - Pityriasis rosea -
Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally associated with or
caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.).
Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a
herald patch.
What is a furuncle? - (correct Answer) - An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the surrounding
tissue -
, Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger processes that require
broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized
infection that is self-resolving or that requires local, minor treatment.
What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)? - (correct Answer) -
Actinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion of SCC
What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - (correct Answer) - Epithelial cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire thickness of the epithelium
into the basement membrane.
What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - (correct Answer) - Absence of normal tissue organization
-
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated, connected via a well-
organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack those characteristics as well as normal tissue
organization.
Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? - (correct Answer) - Extreme
exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers, which can be
prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent endometrial, breast, and other
cancers as well.
Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - (correct Answer) - Wilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main causes of liver cancer
are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main cause of cervical cancer is HPV infection.
Leukemia is caused by mutations to hematopoietic stem cells.
Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast cancer? - (correct Answer) -
Tamoxifen -
Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent. Rituximab is a CD20-
directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication used in the treatment
of estrogen-linked breast cancer.
Where do the cancers treated with glucocorticoids stem from? - (correct Answer) - Lymphoid tissue -
Glucocorticoids, along with other medications, are used to treat cancers of the lymphoid tissue
(lymphocytic leukemias, Hodgkin disease, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, and multiple myeloma).
A 23-year-old woman comes in for prenatal counseling. While completing her family history, she reports
her brother has cystic fibrosis. She does not know if she is a carrier. She asks if her children will be
affected by the disease.
What is an accurate way to determine the likelihood of this patient's children being affected? - (correct
Which of the following is not a cellular function? - (correct Answer) - Combustion -
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-products of those
processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion) are generally
metaphorical.
What are mitochondria responsible for? - (correct Answer) - Energy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major metabolic
processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).
Which if the following can cause edema? - (correct Answer) - Increased lymphatic pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and accumulation
of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular results in hypertension,
while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third
spaces (i.e. edema).
Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? - (correct Answer) - Two
diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -
The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the completion
of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle and is the
preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the
opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase.
What indicates hypokalemia? - (correct Answer) - Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some variations
of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific
conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not
necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia.
What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - (correct Answer) - Uterine enlargement due
to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the
enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells
grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased
cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid
organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the
uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the
support of a fetus.
What regulates the sodium balance? - (correct Answer) - Aldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys' regulation of
,sodium, potassium, and water excretion.
What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - (correct Answer) - Hypotonic
-
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular fluid (ECF)
into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra-
and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF
above normal.
When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - (correct Answer) - Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH
homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)
Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - (correct Answer) - pH below 7.35;
Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less
than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.
What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - (correct Answer) - Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation
means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in
this context.
What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - (correct Answer) - 50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child being
heterozygous affected is 50%.
Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? - (correct Answer) - It
affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and women will
be affected by it in equal measure.
What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in time? - (correct
Answer) - Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time divided by
the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the incidence rate and
how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is
the measure of a risk factor effect.
Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has a larger genetic
component? - (correct Answer) - Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer are
hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.
,Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - (correct Answer) - To destroy foreign,
invasive microorganisms -
The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive organisms. As a
secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response processes of the body.
What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? - (correct Answer) - Increased
vascular permeability -
Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of inflammation will result in
the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema).
Previousquestion
In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - (correct Answer) - Bone marrow -
The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes, reside to mature into
B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen,
and thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and development.
Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to recipient? - (correct
Answer) - Passive acquired immunity -
Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that occur from
(acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to foreign antigens. Passive
immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are present with or without simulation can arise
or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies).
What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - (correct Answer) - Increased susceptibility for infection -
As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses to pathogens and
other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases.
What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or soaps also known as? -
(correct Answer) - Irritant contact dermatitis -
Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a manifestation of an
innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic, stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more
systemic processes of the immune system and vasculature.
Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses and a herald patch? -
(correct Answer) - Pityriasis rosea -
Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally associated with or
caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.).
Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a
herald patch.
What is a furuncle? - (correct Answer) - An infection of the hair follicle that extends to the surrounding
tissue -
, Abscess, dermis, and fungal infections are generally more widespread or larger processes that require
broad or systemic treatment. A furuncle, though uncomfortable to painful, is a generally localized
infection that is self-resolving or that requires local, minor treatment.
What type of lesion may be malignant in the form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)? - (correct Answer) -
Actinic keratosis -
Actinic keratosis, which is caused by exposure to UV radiation, is a precursor lesion of SCC
What type of abnormal cell growth does carcinoma refer to? - (correct Answer) - Epithelial cells -
Carcinoma refers to dysplastic epithelial cells that have penetrated the entire thickness of the epithelium
into the basement membrane.
What is a characteristic of a malignant tumor? - (correct Answer) - Absence of normal tissue organization
-
Healthy tissue is made up of non-cancerous cells that are well-differentiated, connected via a well-
organized stroma and that stay put. Malignant tumors lack those characteristics as well as normal tissue
organization.
Which lifestyle factor has not been linked to the development of cancer? - (correct Answer) - Extreme
exercise -
Tobacco use, obesity, and alcohol consumption are causal for numerous cancers, which can be
prevented. Exercise helps prevent colon cancer and likely helps prevent endometrial, breast, and other
cancers as well.
Which pediatric malignancy is linked to the family of origin? - (correct Answer) - Wilms tumor -
Wilms tumor is kidney cancer in childhood caused by inherited genes. The main causes of liver cancer
are hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and alcohol use. The main cause of cervical cancer is HPV infection.
Leukemia is caused by mutations to hematopoietic stem cells.
Which of the following drugs is classified as hormonal treatment for breast cancer? - (correct Answer) -
Tamoxifen -
Lapatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Paclitaxil is an antimicrotubule agent. Rituximab is a CD20-
directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication used in the treatment
of estrogen-linked breast cancer.
Where do the cancers treated with glucocorticoids stem from? - (correct Answer) - Lymphoid tissue -
Glucocorticoids, along with other medications, are used to treat cancers of the lymphoid tissue
(lymphocytic leukemias, Hodgkin disease, non-Hodgkin lymphomas, and multiple myeloma).
A 23-year-old woman comes in for prenatal counseling. While completing her family history, she reports
her brother has cystic fibrosis. She does not know if she is a carrier. She asks if her children will be
affected by the disease.
What is an accurate way to determine the likelihood of this patient's children being affected? - (correct
