Exam Questions And Correct Answers
{Verified Answers} Plus Rationales
2025/2026 Q&A / Instant Download Pdf
1. During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse hears a murmur immediately after S1.
Which type of murmur is this most likely to be?
a. Diastolic murmur
b. Systolic murmur
c. Continuous murmur
d. Functional murmur
Systolic murmurs occur between S1 and S2 and are often related to conditions such
as aortic stenosis or mitral regurgitation.
2. Which cranial nerve is assessed when checking for facial symmetry and strength?
a. Cranial nerve V
b. Cranial nerve VII
c. Cranial nerve IX
d. Cranial nerve XII
Cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) controls facial movements and expressions,
including symmetry and strength.
3. A patient’s lung assessment reveals high-pitched, musical wheezes during expiration.
This finding most likely indicates:
a. Pleural friction rub
b. Asthma
c. Heart failure
d. Pulmonary embolism
Wheezing is caused by narrowing of the airways, commonly seen in asthma or
bronchospasm.
4. Which heart sound is best heard at the apex with the patient in the left lateral
position?
a. S1
b. S3
c. S2
d. S4
, S3 is best heard at the apex in the left lateral position and may indicate heart
failure in adults.
5. The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which
finding supports this diagnosis?
a. Pallor in the affected leg
b. Loss of sensation
c. Unilateral leg swelling and warmth
d. Weak dorsalis pedis pulse
DVT commonly presents with unilateral swelling, redness, warmth, and tenderness
over the vein.
6. A positive Babinski reflex in an adult is considered:
a. A normal finding
b. An abnormal finding
c. A sign of peripheral neuropathy
d. A benign neurological sign
A positive Babinski reflex in adults indicates an upper motor neuron lesion and is
considered abnormal.
7. The Allen test is used to assess:
a. Venous insufficiency
b. Peripheral edema
c. Patency of the radial and ulnar arteries
d. Capillary refill
The Allen test evaluates blood flow in the radial and ulnar arteries before arterial
puncture.
8. A patient’s carotid pulse is best palpated:
a. At the angle of the jaw
b. In the groove between the trachea and sternocleidomastoid muscle
c. Over the suprasternal notch
d. Just above the clavicle
The carotid pulse is palpated in the groove between the trachea and
sternocleidomastoid muscle.
9. Crackles heard during lung auscultation are caused by:
a. Air passing through narrowed bronchioles
b. Air opening collapsed alveoli
c. Fluid in the pleural space
d. Secretions in the trachea
Crackles occur when air opens previously collapsed alveoli, often due to fluid in the
lungs.
, 10. In a neurological exam, rapid alternating movements test:
a. Strength
b. Cerebellar function
c. Sensory perception
d. Cranial nerve function
Rapid alternating movements (RAMs) assess coordination and cerebellar function.
11. When palpating the posterior chest for tactile fremitus, decreased fremitus is most
likely caused by:
a. Pneumonia
b. Pleural effusion
c. Bronchitis
d. Asthma
Pleural effusion dampens sound transmission, leading to decreased tactile
fremitus.
12. Which location is best for auscultating the tricuspid valve?
a. Second right intercostal space, sternal border
b. Second left intercostal space, sternal border
c. Fourth left intercostal space, sternal border
d. Fifth left intercostal space, midclavicular line
The tricuspid valve is best heard at the fourth left intercostal space, sternal border.
13. A nurse notes a patient’s jugular veins are distended at 45 degrees. This finding
suggests:
a. Hypovolemia
b. Right-sided heart failure
c. Left-sided heart failure
d. Carotid artery stenosis
Jugular venous distension at 45 degrees is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure.
14. A patient’s pupils constrict when focusing on a near object. This is an example of:
a. Accommodation reflex
b. Accommodation
c. Consensual light reflex
d. Direct light reflex
Accommodation involves pupillary constriction when focusing on a near object.
15. When grading pulses, a score of 3+ indicates:
a. Absent
b. Weak
c. Bounding